The Official Forum  

Go Back   The Official Forum > Baseball
Register FAQ Community Calendar Today's Posts Search

Reply
 
LinkBack Thread Tools Rate Thread Display Modes
  #1 (permalink)  
Old Fri Mar 14, 2003, 02:16pm
Official Forum Member
 
Join Date: Jan 2001
Location: Germantown, TN (east of Memphis)
Posts: 783
I'll save you the trouble of looking it up:

8.1.1 SITUATION L: With R1 on third base and trying to score on a steal or squeeze play, F2 obstructs the batter's swing. RULING: This is defensive obstruction and R1 is awarded home. The batter is awarded first base.
COMMENT: If the catcher, or any other defensive player, obstructs the batter before he has become a batter-runner, the batter is awarded first base. If on such obstruction a runner is trying to score by a steal or a squeeze from third base, the play will be a delayed dead ball which results in the runner on third scoring and the batter being awarded first base. Runners not attempting to steal or not forced to advance remain on the bases occupied at the time of the obstruction.


I'm mostly interested in the comment. What confuses me a bit is that the situation produces a delayed dead ball yet, at the same time, all other runners (not stealing) must remain on the base they occupied at the time of the obstruction. The only possible situation this could arise is with runners at 2nd and 3rd where the runner at 2nd is *not* stealing on the play.

Let's change the scenario a bit.

R2 & R3. R3 is stealing home on the pitch and the batter attempts to execute a squeeze. The catcher bumps into the batter (obstruction) but the catcher misses the ball. R3 scores easily and R2, who (a) was stealing or (b) was not stealing, also scores on the passed ball.

Ruling for (a) and (b)?

David Emerling
Memphis, TN

Reply With Quote
  #2 (permalink)  
Old Fri Mar 14, 2003, 02:26pm
Official Forum Member
 
Join Date: Feb 2002
Posts: 92
The purpose for the delayed dead ball is to see how the play develops. In your situation, since the BR reached 1B safely (I assume) and all other runners advanced at least one base, the obstruction is ignored. If, however, R3 safely scored and then R2 were to be thrown out at the plate and BR reached 1B safely, the out on R2 would stand because he had safely advanced one base from the time of the obstruction, that's when his protection ends. So, if the BR safely reaches first base and all other runners advance at least one base, the obstruction is ignored. If either one of these is not met when playing action has ceased, the offense can take the result of the play or resort to the BR being put on 1B and all other runners return to their bases at the time of obstruction unless forced to a succeeding base.
Reply With Quote
  #3 (permalink)  
Old Fri Mar 14, 2003, 02:32pm
Official Forum Member
 
Join Date: Oct 2002
Posts: 566
Dave,

I think you need to add to your situation what has happened to the batter-runner before you can rule on the play. IFfthe batter-runner doesn't reach first safely, then you have to give the defense the option, thus the reason for the delayed dead ball.
__________________
"Booze, broads, and bullsh!t. If you got all that, what else do you need?"."
- Harry Caray -
Reply With Quote
  #4 (permalink)  
Old Fri Mar 14, 2003, 02:41pm
Official Forum Member
 
Join Date: Jan 2001
Location: Germantown, TN (east of Memphis)
Posts: 783
Quote:
Originally posted by gsf23
Dave,

I think you need to add to your situation what has happened to the batter-runner before you can rule on the play. IFfthe batter-runner doesn't reach first safely, then you have to give the defense the option, thus the reason for the delayed dead ball.
The batter misses the bunt for a strike ... but it is *not* strike three. So, the play would *not* involve the batter reaching first.
Reply With Quote
  #5 (permalink)  
Old Fri Mar 14, 2003, 04:03pm
Official Forum Member
 
Join Date: Oct 2002
Posts: 566
Alright, I'll take a stab at this but I don't have my books with me so I'm just thinking off the top of my head how I would rule. Never seen this situation so I have no experience on the matter.

Situation A - They have the option or either strike on the batter and both runs score, or place the runner at 1st and again, score both runs since both players were trying to steal. I could be wrong on that, maybe you don't score both runs and only give R2 third base since that was the base he was attempting to steal.

Situation B - They have the option again of taking the result of the play, strike on the batter and both runs score, or place the batter on first, score the run from third since he was attemping to steal and the other runner back at 2nd since he was neither stealing or forced to advance.

Let the criticism begin.
__________________
"Booze, broads, and bullsh!t. If you got all that, what else do you need?"."
- Harry Caray -
Reply With Quote
  #6 (permalink)  
Old Sat Mar 15, 2003, 12:58am
Official Forum Member
 
Join Date: Nov 2000
Posts: 813
Quote:
Originally posted by David Emerling

The batter misses the bunt for a strike ... but it is *not* strike three. So, the play would *not* involve the batter reaching first.
David, in Fed it's referred to as catcher's obstruction.
So WHO did the catcher obstruct?

Don't confuse this issue with an OBR balk with a delivered pitch which is not caught........


Freix

Reply With Quote
Reply

Bookmarks


Posting Rules
You may not post new threads
You may not post replies
You may not post attachments
You may not edit your posts

BB code is On
Smilies are On
[IMG] code is On
HTML code is On
Trackbacks are On
Pingbacks are On
Refbacks are On



All times are GMT -5. The time now is 09:36pm.



Search Engine Friendly URLs by vBSEO 3.3.0 RC1