MD Longhorn |
Fri Jul 22, 2011 02:25pm |
Quote:
Originally Posted by rbmartin
(Post 774203)
Come on guys. Quit insulting and tormenting each other and discuss the question at hand.
After reviewing the provided replay, did the fielder meet the following criteria specified in Rule 2.00 (Catch) "In establishing the validity of the catch, the fielder shall hold the ball long enough to prove that he has complete control of the ball and that his release of the ball is voluntary and intentional."? Keep in mind the Rule 2.00 (Catch) Comment: A catch is legal if the ball is finally held by any fielder, even though juggled, or held by another fielder before it touches the ground.
|
You "voluntary release" police fail to realize the rule assumes there IS a release of the ball. Perhaps we could all live a little easier and not have to read inanities like those posted here if they had written "Is Not Involuntary" instead. We all know when a catch is made. Picking this nit is just stupid. There are a LOT more poorly written rules in the book than this, and the rulebook is just that - a RULE book, not a law journal.
Heard one of the "voluntary release" idiots going on and on at the umpire tree about this one: Pop fly apparently caught by an infielder for the 3rd out, who then runs to the dugout, keeping the ball. This moron (and by your standards, you as well) wanted to say that since the infielder did not show a voluntary release, and the ball went out of play before he had a catch, he now does not have a catch, even if the player voluntarily releases the ball in the dugout.
In the OP, the fielder didn't lose control of the ball - did not "involuntarily release the ball" if you will. Out.
|