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-   -   Pitch or throw? (https://forum.officiating.com/baseball/68907-pitch-throw.html)

cb33 Wed May 04, 2011 05:42pm

Pitch or throw?
 
Bases loaded, two outs, and the runner on third takes a long lead as if he is going to break for the plate.

Pitcher sees him, steps off the rubber and throws to the catcher behind the plate. The batter swings at the ball and drives it off the right field fence for a double.

What's the correct ruling? Is this a pitch, or a throw to an infielder and thus not a legal pitch? Can you provide OBR ruling in such an instance? Thanks for the help

Rich Ives Wed May 04, 2011 06:08pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by cb33 (Post 755989)
Bases loaded, two outs, and the runner on third takes a long lead as if he is going to break for the plate.

Pitcher sees him, steps off the rubber and throws to the catcher behind the plate. The batter swings at the ball and drives it off the right field fence for a double.

What's the correct ruling? Is this a pitch, or a throw to an infielder and thus not a legal pitch? Can you provide OBR ruling in such an instance? Thanks for the help

He stepped off. What does that make him? Can that type of player deliver a pitch?

rbmartin Wed May 04, 2011 08:24pm

8.01 (e) If the pitcher removes his pivot foot from contact with the pitcher's plate by stepping backward with that foot, he thereby becomes an infielder...


7.09 (d) It is interference by a batter or a runner when before two are out and a runner on third base, the batter hinders a fielder in making a play at home base; the runner is out;

PENALTY FOR INTERFERENCE:
The runner is out and the ball is dead.

Coach Dykhoff Wed May 04, 2011 09:18pm

That is an interesting rule.

May I tell my pitcher to step off and hit the batter to get an out in this situation? (Not that I would)

Or does one have an arguement that there was no play at the plate due to the runner not actually stealing home?

rbmartin Wed May 04, 2011 09:45pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by Coach Dykhoff (Post 756053)
May I tell my pitcher to step off and hit the batter to get an out in this situation?



Section 2.00 (definitions) INTERFERENCE: (a) Offensive interference is an act by the team at bat which interferes with...

To interfere requires the transgressor to commit an act. Standing there getting hit in the butt doesn't meet this requirement IMO.

Mrumpiresir Wed May 04, 2011 09:47pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by Coach Dykhoff (Post 756053)
That is an interesting rule.

May I tell my pitcher to step off and hit the batter to get an out in this situation? (Not that I would)

Or does one have an arguement that there was no play at the plate due to the runner not actually stealing home?

The batter being hit by a throw would not be out (providing he did not intentionally interfere).

In the OP the batter would be out for batting a throw that was an attempt to retire a runner.

Coach Dykhoff Wed May 04, 2011 09:49pm

Would it be concidered a rat move if I tried to get the batter to hit the ball in this situation from my pitcher?

David B Wed May 04, 2011 10:33pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by Coach Dykhoff (Post 756063)
Would it be concidered a rat move if I tried to get the batter to hit the ball in this situation from my pitcher?

YES!

Thanks
David

Coach Dykhoff Wed May 04, 2011 10:37pm

Haha ok, just checking.

bob jenkins Thu May 05, 2011 06:50am

Quote:

Originally Posted by Coach Dykhoff (Post 756063)
Would it be concidered a rat move if I tried to get the batter to hit the ball in this situation from my pitcher?

To do that might mean (or be interpreted) that your F1 made a pitching motion while not on the rubber. That's a whole different rule. ;)

MD Longhorn Thu May 05, 2011 09:51am

Quote:

Originally Posted by rbmartin (Post 756038)
8.01 (e) If the pitcher removes his pivot foot from contact with the pitcher's plate by stepping backward with that foot, he thereby becomes an infielder...


7.09 (d) It is interference by a batter or a runner when before two are out and a runner on third base, the batter hinders a fielder in making a play at home base; the runner is out;

PENALTY FOR INTERFERENCE:
The runner is out and the ball is dead.

Incorrect. Why bold the rule if you're going to unbold the part that makes it not apply to the current situation.

The BATTER is out in the OP.

TussAgee11 Thu May 05, 2011 10:10am

Yes, you always have an out on this play, but with less than 2 outs you nail RUNNER and with 2 outs you nail BATTER.

rbmartin Thu May 05, 2011 03:08pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by mbcrowder (Post 756247)
Incorrect. Why bold the rule if you're going to unbold the part that makes it not apply to the current situation.

The BATTER is out in the OP.

Thanks. I forgot the OP specified 2 outs. My bad. Batter is out in OP.

HokieUmp Fri May 06, 2011 11:43am

Quote:

Originally Posted by Coach Dykhoff (Post 756053)
May I tell my pitcher to step off and hit the batter to get an out in this situation? (Not that I would)

Free speech being what it is, you can tell your pitcher anything you want.

However, that tactic will start a beanball war and/or get your F1 - and likely you, if the umpire knows** you ordered it - ejected.

**granted, not that likely, unless you were unwise enough to yell it out loud at the time of the play or something.

Robmoz Tue May 31, 2011 01:58pm

Say no outs, runner is put out as a result of the BR interference, what happens to BR then, does he contnue to bat?

mbyron Tue May 31, 2011 02:35pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by Robmoz (Post 762418)
Say no outs, runner is put out as a result of the BR interference, what happens to BR then, does he contnue to bat?

Yes.

TwoBits Wed Jun 01, 2011 09:06am

Quote:

Originally Posted by cb33 (Post 755989)
Bases loaded, two outs, and the runner on third takes a long lead as if he is going to break for the plate.
Pitcher sees him, steps off the rubber and throws to the catcher behind the plate. The batter swings at the ball and drives it off the right field fence for a double.

What's the correct ruling? Is this a pitch, or a throw to an infielder and thus not a legal pitch? Can you provide OBR ruling in such an instance? Thanks for the help

May be picking nits here, but in the OP, it doesn't say that the runner actually is trying to score, but just taking a long lead as if he is going to break for the plate.

In youth games, I've seen very long leads at third base, particularly when the pitcher is in the windup position. Sometimes it is the type of leadoff described even before the pitcher has begun his pitching motion.

Still interference by the batter? If so, would the runner at third be declared out with less than two outs?

bob jenkins Wed Jun 01, 2011 10:12am

Quote:

Originally Posted by TwoBits (Post 762624)
May be picking nits here, but in the OP, it doesn't say that the runner actually is trying to score, but just taking a long lead as if he is going to break for the plate.

In youth games, I've seen very long leads at third base, particularly when the pitcher is in the windup position. Sometimes it is the type of leadoff described even before the pitcher has begun his pitching motion.

Still interference by the batter? If so, would the runner at third be declared out with less than two outs?

Not covered. You could decide that it's a violation by the batter ("weak interference") and by the pitcher (delaying the game by throwing to a fielder without a play) and just reset everything.

Forest Ump Wed Jun 01, 2011 10:32am

Quote:

Originally Posted by Robmoz (Post 762418)
Say no outs, runner is put out as a result of the BR interference, what happens to BR then, does he contnue to bat?

The BI occured when the batter hit the ball. Resulting action from that point on is null. Enforce the out on the batter. Return the runner.

devdem Wed Jun 01, 2011 10:54pm

If the runner never actually broke for home, wouldn't this just be a balk.
The pitcher made a pitching motion while not on the rubber.
Maybe it was HTBT depending on what move he actually made, but I'm guessing it looked enough like a pitching motion that the batter took a swing.

Pat

bob jenkins Thu Jun 02, 2011 07:42am

Quote:

Originally Posted by devdem (Post 762814)
If the runner never actually broke for home, wouldn't this just be a balk.
The pitcher made a pitching motion while not on the rubber.

If that's what the umpire has, then it's a balk. The "assumption" in the OP is that the throwing motion was sufficiently different from the pitching motion.


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