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  #1 (permalink)  
Old Fri Jul 26, 2002, 08:52pm
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Please clarify, an inside pitch, batter ducks to avoid being hit and as he's ducking he lets go of the bat. As soon as his hands come off (instantly), the inside pitch hits the bat. Is this a ball or foul ball (it landed foul). I called ball due to him not having contact with the bat when the ball hit it. Did I get it right? What if the ball goes fair? still a ball? I think so but want clarification. Thanks -Tony
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Old Fri Jul 26, 2002, 09:42pm
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It's a batted ball - fair or foul as per any other batted ball.
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Old Fri Jul 26, 2002, 09:50pm
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FOUL BALL!!!!

Although I'm thankful I wasn't put in your position and expected to make a split-second decision . . . I think you missed this one. However, I'd be willing to bet that this call you made didn't (ultimately) cost either team the ball game. Right?

Now I don't know about OBR rules, but in FED ball (I don't know why it would be any different in this situation) "a ball is credited to the batter when a pitch is not touched by the bat and is not a strike or when there is an illegal pitch or pitcher delay."

Maybe that's not total clarification, but it's what I came up with. Think of this.

If there was a runner trying to steal on the pitch. Since you called the pitch a ball . . . is the ball still live, allowing him to advance? I don't think so.

And though there may be instances in which the ball is dead and the batter is credited a ball . . . I don't think this particular instance applies.
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Old Sat Jul 27, 2002, 04:44pm
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Talking

Gold_Spark, you're correct that this didnt have any affect on who won the game. Now Im glad about that. I wish the FED would clarify the definition of "batted ball". Although thats likely splitting hairs, it seems in the definition section all headings are followed up by definitions except under the "batted ball" heading. It figures. Well at least this isnt earth shattering... ; )
-Tony
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Old Sat Jul 27, 2002, 10:31pm
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Fed does not say that a "batted ball" is only a "batted ball" if the bat is in possession of the batter however, one can argue this. But it does state that a ball is "a pitch which is not touched by the bat and is not a strike" (Rule 2.4.1)

Therefore one could conclude that if it is touched the bat, it would be a "batted ball". There are several references to a "batted ball", such as 2.5 "Base Hit", 2.51 "a fair ball" and Section 16 "Foul ,Foul Tip". You could safely say, that the bat that is referred to in all these rules, is the one brought to the plate by the batter.

Now to throw a wrinkle into the pot. A bunt is defined as "a fair ball in which the batter does not swing to hit the ball, but HOLDS the bat in the path of the ball to tap it slowly to the infield". I know your next question is , if the batter lets go of the bat is it a bunt?

Who ever said it all had to make sense.!!!!!!!!!!!!
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Old Mon Jul 29, 2002, 12:54pm
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You see MLB players do this all the time. Runner stealing, pitch out, batter lunges at ball and releases the bat on swing. No way this is a ball if the bat deflects the ball foul.

Sounds like you got away with though. Nice job!
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