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  #1 (permalink)  
Old Mon Jul 15, 2002, 06:52pm
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Saw this the other night in the Pirates-Brewers game in Milwaukee...

Pirates' batter hits foul pop up near stands. Fielder runs over and attempts the catch but misses the ball but fan catches it! The fan did not physically interfere with the fielder, in fact the fan's glove was about two feet lower than the infielders's glove when he caught the ball. The fielder then crashed into the fence as the umpire signalled for the out. I assume that the ump ruled fan interference (I only got to see the replay because I was getting a cold beverage at the time).

I am not arguing the call, even though I am a Pirates fan. I was just curious about the fan interference. I have seen many instances where a fan touched or caught a ball before a player had the opportunity. This was the first time I can remember when the fielder missed his opportunity for the play, the fan made the catch, and the ump called an out (the ump did a great job of hustling to get in position to see the play). IMO the player's actions were not affected by the fan. I think he took his eye off the ball because he was about to hit the fence.

Have any of you guys ever seen this happen before?

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  #2 (permalink)  
Old Mon Jul 15, 2002, 08:36pm
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Was the ball over Fair or Foul territory when the fan caught the ball?
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  #3 (permalink)  
Old Mon Jul 15, 2002, 11:51pm
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If the fan reaches over live ball territory, he can interfere (unless Richie Garcia is umping the game). When a fielder reaches into dead ball territory, he's allowed to make a catch, but if a fan interferes over DBT, no interference is called. A fielder goes into the stands at his own risk.


Just my opinion,

Freix

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Old Tue Jul 16, 2002, 12:03am
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Hey Garcia is a good umpire who blew a call could have happened to any of us.
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  #5 (permalink)  
Old Tue Jul 16, 2002, 07:37am
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The ball was in foul territory but it would not have landed in the stands. The fan caught it about a foot or two over the railing.
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Old Tue Jul 16, 2002, 08:14am
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I actually meant to ask if the ball was over Foul (live ball) or Dead Ball territory. Freix is correct. Since the fan caught it in live ball territory, it is fan interference. Guessing that the fielder would have missed it anyway is not a factor (as long as he was makning an attempt to catch it).
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Old Tue Jul 16, 2002, 10:19am
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Quote:
Originally posted by Marty Rogers


Guessing that the fielder would have missed it anyway is not a factor (as long as he was makning an attempt to catch it).

The official must judge that the ball could have been caught by a fielder for the interference to have occurred (unless this was also a fair ball). If judged it could not have been caught (or not a fair ball), then it's merely a fan souvenir.


Just my opinion,

Freix

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  #8 (permalink)  
Old Thu Jul 25, 2002, 03:38am
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I go with foul ball. no fan interference. Fielder had his shot and he wasn't going to recover.
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