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-   -   Can the Ball Change Possession during a Dead Ball? (https://forum.officiating.com/baseball/53385-can-ball-change-possession-during-dead-ball.html)

bfoster Tue May 26, 2009 10:20pm

Can the Ball Change Possession during a Dead Ball?
 
I imagine this will be an easy question. It kind of goes back to the hidden ball trick.

I know that the hidden ball trick can not work after a dead ball. However, I was also pretty sure that it was an infraction for the ball to change possession from the pitcher to another fielder under time-out or dead ball. But, after scanning through my NFHS playbook, I don't see anything regarding that and I haven't found anything online. Now, I'm not sure where I picked that up. I was pretty sure that I had read that in baseball rules at some point.

So, is there any rule that says that the ball can not change possession or be transferred to a different defensive player under time-out?

Ump153 Tue May 26, 2009 10:23pm

Time is out on a foul ball. If F3 picks it up, can he throw it back to the pitcher? Yes? Hmmmmmmmmm.

Ump Rube Tue May 26, 2009 10:27pm

Clarification & a possible answer
 
I am not really sure what you mean by a change of possession. In baseball, unlike every other sport, ONLY the defense can have possession of the ball. I think what you are referring to is the pitcher throwing the ball to another play while the ball is dead. He can do this if he wants to, but the ball can be live again (MMMWAHAAAA!) until it is secured by the pitcher while he is engaging the rubber.

bfoster Tue May 26, 2009 10:31pm

Yeah, I just mean can the ball be transferred to a different defensive player under time-out? Ump153 makes a good point, and I'm not seeing anything, now, that would indicate that this kind of transfer CAN'T occur. I was just SURE that I had read somewhere that it wasn't allowed. So, I thought I'd at least ask the question, even if it was stupid, just to see if I could figure out where it came from.

Bishopcolle Wed May 27, 2009 12:28am

If the ball is dead (or better phrased, we have "Time"), then simply have the fielder get the ball back to the pitcher...as previously stated, nothing can happen until the batter is in the batter's box, the pitcher has engaged the rubber, and PU says "Play."

Steven Tyler Wed May 27, 2009 02:11am

Quote:

Originally Posted by Bishopcolle (Post 604790)
If the ball is dead (or better phrased, we have "Time"), then simply have the fielder get the ball back to the pitcher...as previously stated, nothing can happen until the batter is in the batter's box, the pitcher has engaged the rubber, and PU says "Play."

And the catcher is in his box.......;)

mbyron Wed May 27, 2009 06:53am

Quote:

Originally Posted by bfoster (Post 604781)
Yeah, I just mean can the ball be transferred to a different defensive player under time-out? Ump153 makes a good point, and I'm not seeing anything, now, that would indicate that this kind of transfer CAN'T occur. I was just SURE that I had read somewhere that it wasn't allowed. So, I thought I'd at least ask the question, even if it was stupid, just to see if I could figure out where it came from.

Nope, no such rule. This isn't even one of the top 40 baseball rules myths.

ozzy6900 Wed May 27, 2009 10:43am

Quote:

Originally Posted by bfoster (Post 604781)
Yeah, I just mean can the ball be transferred to a different defensive player under time-out? Ump153 makes a good point, and I'm not seeing anything, now, that would indicate that this kind of transfer CAN'T occur. I was just SURE that I had read somewhere that it wasn't allowed. So, I thought I'd at least ask the question, even if it was stupid, just to see if I could figure out where it came from.

Please do us all a favor? If you ever find the person that told you this, give him a slap in the back of the head and keep slapping him until he understands that this is not a rule!

chicago11 Wed May 27, 2009 01:59pm

which way is the possession arrow pointing?

jicecone Wed May 27, 2009 02:21pm

So its kind of like "kissing your sister."

There the fielder stands with a baseball in their hand or glove and it does'nt mean anything because, the ball is not made live until you transfer possesion back to the pitcher so we can get on with the game.

johnnyg08 Wed May 27, 2009 02:51pm

correct...once you call time, we don't resume play until the pitcher has the ball and engages the rubber, if he engages w/o the ball, we have a balk.

The Evans Diamond Challenge DVD has the hidden ball trick example in the DVD...it's a good example too.

Ump Rube Wed May 27, 2009 03:00pm

I am not sure on the balk call.
 
Quote:

Originally Posted by johnnyg08 (Post 604941)
correct...once you call time, we don't resume play until the pitcher has the ball and engages the rubber, if he engages w/o the ball, we have a balk.

There has been a discussion brewing on another forum regarding this call. The consensus seems to be that this is a no-play, not a balk. Specifically, UIC cannot legally place the ball back in play until the pitcher has possession and engages. And with out the ball being in play no balk call can be made. No one has an advantage or a dis-advantage (no out made, no steal made). What say you?

UmpJM Wed May 27, 2009 03:02pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by johnnyg08 (Post 604941)
correct...once you call time, we don't resume play until the pitcher has the ball and engages the rubber, if he engages w/o the ball, we have a balk.

....

johnny,

C'mon. How do you have a balk if the ball is not in play? (Answer: you don't!)

If he engages the rubber without the ball while the ball is dead all you've got is a dead ball - still.

JM

Tim C Wed May 27, 2009 03:07pm

~sigh~
 
johnnyg08:

Please refer to UmpJM and Ump Rube as they are correct.

It is nuttin' honey.

Welpe Wed May 27, 2009 03:26pm

There can only be a change of possession during a live ball and the defense must have "clean hands" prior to the CoP. If there is a foul by team A prior to the CoP and a foul by team B after, team B may decline the penalty and keep the ball.


:D

jicecone Wed May 27, 2009 04:09pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by Welpe (Post 604965)
There can only be a change of possession during a live ball and the defense must have "clean hands" prior to the CoP. If there is a foul by team A prior to the CoP and a foul by team B after, team B may decline the penalty and keep the ball.


:D

So this COULD possibly result in a 30 yard gain but, only if your live ball become dead, correct.

johnnyg08 Wed May 27, 2009 04:14pm

I think you're missing the "resuming play" portion of my post. When we "resume" play, we have a balk...if the pitcher represents that the ball is in his glove, he is on or astride the rubber, umpire points the ball back in play, the ball is not in the pitcher's glove or hand, I'm pretty sure that's not legal.

Welpe Wed May 27, 2009 04:22pm

Johnny, if the pitcher does not have possession of the ball, you cannot legally make the ball live. If he toes the rubber without the ball and the umpire declares "Play!", only to find out the ball is somewhere else, the ball was not made live legally so it is still dead.

Ump Rube Wed May 27, 2009 04:23pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by johnnyg08 (Post 604980)
I think you're missing the "resuming play" portion of my post. When we "resume" play, we have a balk...if the pitcher represents that the ball is in his glove, he is on or astride the rubber, umpire points the ball back in play, the ball is not in the pitcher's glove or hand, I'm pretty sure that's not legal.

You are correct something is not legal. Only problem is that putting the ball in play is what is not legal at this point...

Quote:

Originally Posted by FED 5-1-4
After a dead ball, the ball becomes alive when it is held be the pitcher in a legal pitching position, provided the pitcher has engaged the pitcher's plate, the batter and catcher are in their respective boxes, and the umpire calls "Play" and give the appropriate signal.

All criteria have to be met for the ball to live again.

johnnyg08 Wed May 27, 2009 04:28pm

got it...thanks welpe, rube, and tim c

jwwashburn Wed May 27, 2009 04:29pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by Welpe (Post 604985)
Johnny, if the pitcher does not have possession of the ball, you cannot legally make the ball live. If he toes the rubber without the ball and the umpire declares "Play!", only to find out the ball is somewhere else, the ball was not made live legally so it is still dead.

Actually, that would be a balk in FED wouldn't it? ...I think ORB, as well.

Matt Wed May 27, 2009 04:32pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by jwwashburn (Post 604991)
Actually, that would be a balk in FED wouldn't it? ...I think ORB, as well.

Nope. You can't have a balk on a dead ball. You can't make the ball live unless the pitcher has the ball. Therefore, this cannot be a balk.

Tim C Wed May 27, 2009 05:30pm

Hmmm,
 
It seems we cover this each year. Since we do it must be a confusing situation.

I believe that many recognize that it is a balk to do something that simulates a pitch . . . HOWEVER . . . after "Time" has been called or the ball has gone to dead ball territory an umpire cannot put the ball in play until the pitcher has the ball in hand, has contacted the pitcher's plate, the batter is in the box (and some will comment on the catcher's in his area) and all is ready for the direction "PLAY".

If an umpire, in error, puts the ball in play without the pitcher having the ball in his possession it is simple a "do over". There is no balk.

mikebran Wed May 27, 2009 05:50pm

Uh, its right here in MY rool book. Right under the

Hands are part of the bat rool.


I am having trouble finding the possession arrow rool.


Quote:

Originally Posted by ozzy6900 (Post 604873)
Please do us all a favor? If you ever find the person that told you this, give him a slap in the back of the head and keep slapping him until he understands that this is not a rule!


SanDiegoSteve Wed May 27, 2009 10:08pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by jicecone (Post 604935)
So its kind of like "kissing your sister."

Really? I didn't find it even remotely like kissing your sister!:confused:

jwwashburn Wed May 27, 2009 10:43pm

Tim, Thanks....I think I remember the last time you set me straight on this. The key here is that even if the Umpire accidentally tries to put the ball in play without the pitcher having it, he can't.

I am trying to remember if I have ever done that...I did have a balk last year when F3 pretended to throw it back to F1 and then F1 toed the rubber as if to pitch.

The coach requested time. I granted it. He came over and said, "What kind of balk was that?" I explained. Then, he said, "I have never seen that one but, you sure as hell didn't make it up!"....turned around and told F3 "Quit screwing around...that's a balk!"

Joe In Missouri

waltjp Wed May 27, 2009 10:43pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by Welpe (Post 604965)
There can only be a change of possession during a live ball and the defense must have "clean hands" prior to the CoP. If there is a foul by team A prior to the CoP and a foul by team B after, team B may decline the penalty and keep the ball.


:D

I made the same mistake. I read the title and thought it was a football thread.

jicecone Thu May 28, 2009 07:19am

Quote:

Originally Posted by SanDiegoSteve (Post 605047)
Really? I didn't find it even remotely like kissing your sister!:confused:

Hey! Leave my sister out of this and by the way, she still hasn't received last months alimony check. We need to pay the internet bill.

ManInBlue Thu May 28, 2009 08:33pm

If they try the hidden ball trick after/during a DB, and I put the ball in play (b/c I'm assuming F1 has the ball), then I'm going to warn Skip and his pitcher that if they try that stunt again, they're both gone.

Might be over the top, but you've just tried to pull the wool over my eyes, and I don't roll like that.

Matt Thu May 28, 2009 08:38pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by ManInBlue (Post 605309)
If they try the hidden ball trick after/during a DB, and I put the ball in play (b/c I'm assuming F1 has the ball), then I'm going to warn Skip and his pitcher that if they try that stunt again, they're both gone.

Might be over the top, but you've just tried to pull the wool over my eyes, and I don't roll like that.

How are you gonna justify that one?

SanDiegoSteve Thu May 28, 2009 08:40pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by ManInBlue (Post 605309)
If they try the hidden ball trick after/during a DB, and I put the ball in play (b/c I'm assuming F1 has the ball), then I'm going to warn Skip and his pitcher that if they try that stunt again, they're both gone.

Might be over the top, but you've just tried to pull the wool over my eyes, and I don't roll like that.

A bit over the top. Only worthy of an eye roll, a "nice try there, Skippy," and not much more. I don't see how you can throw them out for trying to fool you...they do it all the time constantly throughout the game.

ManInBlue Thu May 28, 2009 08:41pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by Matt (Post 605310)
How are you gonna justify that one?

Since this is a "football" thread...unsportsman like conduct.

UmpJM Thu May 28, 2009 08:52pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by ManInBlue (Post 605309)
If they try the hidden ball trick after/during a DB, and I put the ball in play (b/c I'm assuming F1 has the ball), then I'm going to warn Skip and his pitcher that if they try that stunt again, they're both gone.

Might be over the top, but you've just tried to pull the wool over my eyes, and I don't roll like that.

ManInBlue,

If you "put the ball in play" when the pitcher doesn't have the ball, you should be upset with yourself, not them.

JM

johnnyg08 Thu May 28, 2009 09:02pm

actually, while I was looking up the "no throwing the ball back to the pitcher after a homerun" on the same page of PBUC I saw the "no putting the ball back in play until the pitcher has the ball and..."

SanDiegoSteve Thu May 28, 2009 09:07pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by johnnyg08 (Post 605317)
actually, while I was looking up the "no throwing the ball back to the pitcher after a homerun" on the same page of PBUC I saw the "no putting the ball back in play until the pitcher has the ball and..."

But I'll bet you couldn't find anything on not throwing the ball back to the pitcher after a homerun, right?

johnnyg08 Thu May 28, 2009 09:09pm

actually I did. would you like me to post it? or do you trust me that it's in there?

SanDiegoSteve Thu May 28, 2009 09:11pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by johnnyg08 (Post 605322)
actually I did. would you like me to post it? or do you trust me that it's in there?

I trust you. What I would like you to post is the reason for this edict. What purpose does it serve?

johnnyg08 Thu May 28, 2009 09:15pm

I don't know...I asked the question earlier in another thread. There's no case plays, no rationale, it's included in the "putting the ball in play" section. I'm wondering if others have thoughts on it...I can't think of why they'd bother putting something like that in PBUC w/o something happening that they had to put it in there.


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