Umpire Obstruction?

[Bfair]

Originally posted by Rog
NFHS Rule # 5-1-1-h
the ball is DEAD "immediately" ( . )

I am well aware of the rule, Rog. The point I'm making is that it is an umpire's decision to handle a live ball, thus ending play no different than it's an umpire's decision to verbally call time. I had a similar instance occur where a pitcher flipped a ball to me while a runner was attempting to continue his advance from 1st to 3rd after a bunt. I backed off the ball, allowing it to roll to the screen. The runner saw the ball go to the screen and advanced home on the pitcher's brain fart.

Take this play:

R2 is scoring uncontested, is 10 ft. from the plate, and your partner calls time because F4, holding the ball he just received from F8 after a hit, had requested time?

While it's not your call, you are likely to have a discussion with BU regarding the incident. Afterall, you are responsible as PU for knowing whether R2 scores before the ball became dead.

Do you send the runner back to 3B?.........
.....or would you recommend to BU that his decision of calling time be reversed to allow the runner to score?
I think I'd score the run, especially under Fed rule.

I see this situation as no different.
By rule, the ball becomes dead because PU made the decision to handle it.
If R3 was sliding in at the time and F2 had no chance of tagging him since he was handing PU the ball, then score the run. F2 was making no effort to tag R3.

I will agree, however, if it's feasibly possibly to say R3 didn't start his advance until after F2 handed PU the ball, that would be the avenue of least resistance---even if the umps needed to stretch their judgment decision on that one.

So, when your partner calls time, do you send the runner back to 3B?
Or do you let him score?


Freix