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-   -   Does the run score? (https://forum.officiating.com/baseball/53051-does-run-score.html)

starman Sat May 02, 2009 09:14pm

Does the run score?
 
I am not an ump, I just read the message board a lot. I was hoping someone could set me straight on this play. This happened in my son's game today.

Bases loaded. 1 Out.
Ground ball to Third.
R2 is tagged out by the third baseman.
R1 reaches and tags second base, however, he gets confused and retreats towards first base. This reinstates the force.
The third baseman throws to second to get the third out. However, R3 crosses the plate before second out. Does the run count?

The ump initially counted the run. The the defensive coach talked him out of it. I did not hear the converstation.

I know that the run would not count if it was a straight forwad double play. However, instinctivly I think that since R1 reached second the run should count. I am having trouble finding anything in the MLB rule book to clarify this.

dash_riprock Sat May 02, 2009 09:35pm

When R1 retreats toward 1st, the force is reinstated. The run does not score. This is not a time play.

Mrumpiresir Sat May 02, 2009 09:35pm

Once R1 retreated toward first base, by rule the force is reinstated. The run does not score.

jdmara Sat May 02, 2009 10:43pm

I agree...The run does not count.

-Josh

mbyron Sun May 03, 2009 08:51am

Quote:

Originally Posted by starman (Post 599380)
I know that the run would not count if it was a straight forward double play. However, instinctively I think that since R1 reached second the run should count. I am having trouble finding anything in the MLB rule book to clarify this.

Stop looking. Your "instincts" or intuitions are incorrect. R1 merely reaching 2B does not change the play: if the 3rd out is a force play, no run can score (4.09). As the others have posted, the force was reinstated by the baserunning error.

starman Sun May 03, 2009 09:16am

Thanks guys. 4.09 satisfies me.

johnnyg08 Sun May 03, 2009 09:40am

So, more specifically if a force is possible on that runner and it's the third out, no run can score right? So even if it's a tag, not a force we still have no run right?

MrUmpire Sun May 03, 2009 10:22am

Quote:

Originally Posted by johnnyg08 (Post 599414)
So, more specifically if a force is possible on that runner and it's the third out, no run can score right? So even if it's a tag, not a force we still have no run right?

If the third out is made during a force situation, no matter how the out is made, no run can score.

mbyron Sun May 03, 2009 10:52am

Quote:

Originally Posted by johnnyg08 (Post 599414)
So even if it's a tag, not a force we still have no run right?

You need to look up the definition of a force play. It has nothing to do with how the runner is put out.

johnnyg08 Sun May 03, 2009 10:57am

Or I could ask the question on here since that is the purpose. I'm aware of what I can look up...thanks

ozzy6900 Sun May 03, 2009 02:35pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by johnnyg08 (Post 599421)
Or I could ask the question on here since that is the purpose. I'm aware of what I can look up...thanks

The purpose of this board is to communicate with fellow umpires. This is not a rules verification board! If someone is kind enough to answer your rules question, you say "Thank You" and be on your way. If one of more knowledge than you tells you "you can look this up......", you say "Thank You" and be on your way. That is what respect for each other is about. If you need to learn that, you don't belong here!

JMHO

mbyron Sun May 03, 2009 04:57pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by johnnyg08 (Post 599421)
Or I could ask the question on here since that is the purpose. I'm aware of what I can look up...thanks

You're welcome.

Obviously you haven't looked it up, and are content to be snotty. This is a very basic rule that you shouldn't be umpiring without knowing.

Quote:

Originally Posted by Rule 2.00
A FORCE PLAY is a play in which a runner legally loses his right to occupy a base by reason of the batter becoming a runner.

It's a force play if the runner is forced to advance. This status has nothing to do with how he is put out — tagging the runner or the base doesn't affect whether the play is a force play.

kylejt Sun May 03, 2009 05:09pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by ozzy6900 (Post 599452)
The purpose of this board is to communicate with fellow umpires. This is not a rules verification board! If someone is kind enough to answer your rules question, you say "Thank You" and be on your way. If one of more knowledge than you tells you "you can look this up......", you say "Thank You" and be on your way. That is what respect for each other is about. If you need to learn that, you don't belong here!

JMHO

Are you naturally this grouchy, or is it something you've worked on over time? Is this something I should look forward to? Should I get a mentor?

greymule Sun May 03, 2009 05:19pm

In the OP, the run of course does not score.

However:

R3, R1, 2 outs. Batter singles down the 3B line. R3 scores, R1 stops at 2B. The ball comes in to the mound. As F1 awaits the next batter, R2 now retreats toward 1B (perhaps thinking the ball was foul, perhaps to retrieve his hat, wrongly assuming that time had been called), and F1 throws to F4 for the reinstated force.

This third out seems to me to be a new play, occurring after the continuing action of the original play. I would not nullify the run.

I know it's so unlikely that it's probably not addressed anywhere, but in 39 years I did see it happen once (though I admit it was in softball).

bob jenkins Sun May 03, 2009 06:01pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by greymule (Post 599465)
In the OP, the run of course does not score.

However:

R3, R1, 2 outs. Batter singles down the 3B line. R3 scores, R1 stops at 2B. The ball comes in to the mound. As F1 awaits the next batter, R2 now retreats toward 1B (perhaps thinking the ball was foul, perhaps to retrieve his hat, wrongly assuming that time had been called), and F1 throws to F4 for the reinstated force.

This third out seems to me to be a new play, occurring after the continuing action of the original play. I would not nullify the run.

I know it's so unlikely that it's probably not addressed anywhere, but in 39 years I did see it happen once (though I admit it was in softball).

If it's a "reinstated force" then the run doesn't count. If it's not, then the run does count.

While the timing may determine which it is, there's no time frame when it's both a "reinstated force" and a timing play (to allow the run to score).

greymule Sun May 03, 2009 06:18pm

I don't understand. Why isn't it a reinstated force regardless of the timing? Even after a pitch, if R2 retreats toward 1B (and there's a runner occupying 1B), isn't the force reinstated? Or has that somehow become a tag play because the batter did not become a runner on that play?

johnnyg08 Sun May 03, 2009 06:41pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by mbyron (Post 599463)
You're welcome.

Obviously you haven't looked it up, and are content to be snotty. This is a very basic rule that you shouldn't be umpiring without knowing.



It's a force play if the runner is forced to advance. This status has nothing to do with how he is put out — tagging the runner or the base doesn't affect whether the play is a force play.

I could look up every rule as I do on my own...or I could come on here and discuss it or do both. During your post games do you just tell your partners to go "look it up, we're not dicussing the rules"...you should do that on your own. Your post is really silly. To say that I have no right to come on here and ask for clarification is one of the dumbest things I've ever read on this board.

mbyron Sun May 03, 2009 07:43pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by johnnyg08 (Post 599469)
Your post is really silly. To say that I have no right to come on here and ask for clarification is one of the dumbest things I've ever read on this board.

Where did anyone say that?

Ugh. Back to Ignore-land for you.

Rich Ives Sun May 03, 2009 07:49pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by johnnyg08 (Post 599469)
I could look up every rule as I do on my own...or I could come on here and discuss it or do both. During your post games do you just tell your partners to go "look it up, we're not dicussing the rules"...you should do that on your own. Your post is really silly. To say that I have no right to come on here and ask for clarification is one of the dumbest things I've ever read on this board.

Making you look it up has many benefits

1) You'll discover it.
2) You'll remember it.
3) You'll believe it.

OTOH, if you just have someone tell you

1) You may not believe it.
2) You won't be able to find it when you really need to read it.

SAump Sun May 03, 2009 08:23pm

Return to pitcher
 
Quote:

7.01 A runner acquires the right to an unoccupied base when he touches it before he is out. He is then entitled to it until he is put out, or forced to vacate it for another runner legally entitled to that base.
Rule 7.01 Comment: If a runner legally acquires title to a base, and the pitcher assumes his pitching position, the runner may not return to a previously occupied base.
Wiping off a run that has legally scored seems to be more difficult than immediately reinstating the force play once the pitcher has the ball.

johnnyg08 Sun May 03, 2009 08:25pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by Rich Ives (Post 599484)
Making you look it up has many benefits

1) You'll discover it.
2) You'll remember it.
3) You'll believe it.

OTOH, if you just have someone tell you

1) You may not believe it.
2) You won't be able to find it when you really need to read it.

It doesn't pay to try to explain it or defend it to anybody, but I, like probably 99% of umps on here do my fair share of looking up.

Reasons a person may respond to a post w/o looking up:

1. access to the site vs access to a rule book
2. feel like discussing first, then looking up to discover/remember/believe
3. flat out don't feel like finding the exact rule and would rather discuss it

We can all bury our heads in a rule book until we are blue in the face...but sometimes it's good to mix it up.

I agree with your post 100%...but to say that I should "look it up" before asking a question on here...would bring an end to the forum pretty quickly.

ManInBlue Sun May 03, 2009 09:59pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by johnnyg08 (Post 599488)
...but to say that I should "look it up" before asking a question on here...would bring an end to the forum pretty quickly.

Not to agree or disagree with either "look it up" or "ask first" but I completely disagree with this statement.

If I have a sitch, I can look up the rule, then discuss it. Sometimes the verbiage isn't clear, sometimes you can't make the connection to your sitch, and sometimes you can't find the exact rule you're looking for. All of these promote discussion and make the board thrive, yet I first attempted to look up the rule myself.

The life blood of the forum is discussing interpretations of the rules, not spitting out rules to keep others from reading.

Again, this is simply in rebuttal to the quoted statement.

greymule Sun May 03, 2009 10:13pm

I've read the J/R, PBUC, BRD, and the rest of them, but there are still times when you simply can't find what you're looking for or remember the section it was in. I think the objections to the OP were mainly that the answer was obvious, or at least easily found.

There are other times when you know the rule but wonder whether it applies in a particular case. There are, for example, baseball and softball rules (or OBR and Fed rules) that are parallel in wording, but in practice they're interpreted differently.

But I agree that it's annoying when somebody uses the board simply to ask questions whose answers are easily found.


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