Offensive Interference

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Hi-
Yesterday’s game- Pony 11-12 year-olds. Bunt. Batter-runner runs down the line, right down the center of the foul line, not in the lane. Gets hit with throw from pitcher just before he reaches 1st. I call him out. Question is this: When he gets close to 1st, how much inside fair territory is he allowed to take legally? Does it matter if he is hit just before 1st, or 15 feet closer to home? (Rule book makes no distinction) .Doesn’t he almost have to come inside the foul line to touch 1st/ Isn’t too much to ask that he stay in foul territory and only reach to the left with his left foot to touch the base? The way I read 6.05 (k), that is what he is supposed to do. Thanks. ( I called him out partially because he was never in the lane, and thought that it would be better for him to learn the correct rule, and, there was no doubt that he was unaware of it, or not following it). Thanks-David

[GarthB]

From JEA:

"An allowance should be made for the batter-runner to step inside the foul line as he reaches the immediate vicinity of first base; otherwise, the base is not readily accessible for him to touch since the runner’s lane runs adjacent and past the base in foul territory."



Originally, the foul line ran to the center of the bag at first. When this was changed consideration had to be given to allow the runner legal access to touch the base during a play that had the potential of involving a running lane violation.

GB

[[email protected]]

Still....
If the runner runs inside or on the foul line, not in the lane, and is hit just before the base, do you call him out?
(After no attempt to run in the lane). Are you more likely to call him out if hit by the ball, when he is close to first, if he has not spent any time in the lane, or do you just treat it the same as if he ran all the way in the lane, and then moved over into fair territory to touch the base? Also, what if there is a low blooper down the right field line, 25 feet or so: when the runner runs past the ball, is he supposed to move out into the lane to accommodate a throw? Thanks-

[GarthB]

"Still....
If the runner runs inside or on the foul line, not in the lane, and is hit just before the base, do you call him out?
(After no attempt to run in the lane)."

Let's look at the rule:

6.05 A batter is out when

(k)In running the last half of the distance from home base to first base, while the ball is being fielded to first base, he runs outside(to the right of) the three-foot line, or inside (to the left of) the foul line, and in the umpire’s judgment in so doing interferes with the fielder taking the throw at first base; except that he may run outside (to the right of) the three-foot line or inside (to the left of) the foul line to avoid a fielder attempting to field a batted ball.

First off, you will have to exercise some judgment, not only on the field but in studying the rule as well. The OBR and the JEA for the matter, is completely instructive for every scenario. You need to use your thought process and make some decisions. No one can tell you what call to make everytime. We aren't there.

Now, let's refer to the JEA again:

"Early in the 1900's, more common sense dominated. The rule was re-worded to allow the umpire to use his judgment in determining when and if a runner’s position out of the runner’s lane actually interfered with a fielder taking a throw at first base."

There's that word again: judgment.

Here's an example of judgment:

"One factor influencing the umpire’s judgment on these plays is the quality of the throw to first base. If a throw which has no realistic chance of retiring the batter-runner is made, the batter-runner shall not be declared out for interference (lane violation) if he is hit by the throw or the fielder cannot make the catch."

Back to your scenario. Are we more likely to call him out if he wasn't in the lane all the way versus he wasn't in the lane near the end?

Factors for your judgment:

Why wasn't he in the lane near the end? Did he leave the lane to access the bag (allowed)?

Was he interefering with the fielder's right to take the throw by being out of the lane earlier? (Rememeber, interference and a throw must occur for a call to be made)

Read the situation, you are the only one there, even if it's in your mind and then consider your question:

"Are you more likely to call him out if hit by the ball, when he is close to first, if he has not spent any time in the lane, or do you just treat it the same as if he ran all the way in the lane, and then moved over into fair territory to touch the base?"

Well? Whats your answer? Is not being in the lane all the way a factor in your scenario. Was he interfering at that time? Or did the play take time to develop and the throw not take place until he was a step from the bag? Or...something in between.

I'm really don't mean to be antagonistic, but in reality, you are the only one to decide this. The rules give you defintions and various interpretations provide additional guidelines. I can only tell you what I would do. That doesn't make it right for you in any particular play.

I don't consider just the last part of this play. I consider the play in it's total from beginning to end and factor in what the runner, fielder throwing and fielder intending to catch the thrown ball are all doing. They are all pieces to a puzzle and if the fit a certain way, I've got interference. If they don't, I don't.

Bottom line: Was there interference with the fielder taking the throw? Was it caused by illegal activity by the batter/runner? Was there a quality throw?

If the answer to all three is yes, then I've got interference.



[Edited by GarthB on Jun 29th, 2002 at 06:36 PM]