Balk from a Set or Stretch position

[Mel Hawkins]

If a right-handed pitcher comes set in the stretch position with his right foot on the pitching rubber, is it a balk if, in one quick motion, he steps back off the rubber with his right foot and then pivots to first base as if to throw but does not release the ball?

[jicecone]

no

[Tim C]

no

[brandda]

As long as his foot is off the rubber when he makes his motion, no. CLose though.

[GarthB]

"As long as his foot is off the rubber when he makes his motion, no. CLose though."


Close? What's close about it? He stepped off. Then he faked. Completely, absolutely, without question, no debate a perfectly legal and extremely common move. Close? Close to what?

[Edited by GarthB on Jun 3rd, 2002 at 10:36 PM]

[brandda]

Garth,

You have to make a judgement as to whether he stepped off first or faked first. The post said that the step off and fake to first happened at the same time. That makes it close in my book.

[GarthB]

The post read:
..."is it a balk if, in one quick motion, he steps back off the rubber with his right foot and then pivots to first base as if to throw but does not release the ball?

Sounds like a pretty clear 1-2 sequence. I see nothing about the two moves happening at the same time.

[Tim C]

Hooray for Garth.

The play as posted is simple . . . Don't make things tougher than they are.

[Rbn3]

to sides" after stepping off (as required by OBR? Sorring for the very late post - I just stumbled on this thread.

I see guys interrupt their stretch by stepping back and immediately throwing to first without dropping hands to sides. Is this not a balk? What constitutes "dropping the hands?"

[Jerry]

The "dropping of the arms/hands" have nothing to do with the scenario. That rule is to prevent pitchers from stepping back off the rubber and immediately getting back on to pitch. The dropping of the hands, by interpretation, can occur anytime up to the point of reengaging the rubber in preparation of coming to a Set or Windup position.
Jerry

[Rbn3]

...he must drop his hands to his sides" is the exact sentence from ORB. It says "when" he disengages, not "before he re-engages."

I find you are correct in practice, since I have never seen a balk called on the "step back throw to first move" when the pitcher keeps his hands up and raises his throwing arm immediately without dropping it. Yet the rule seems very clearly to indicate failure to do not is not legal.

[Jake80]

Originally posted by Mel Hawkins
If a right-handed pitcher comes set in the stretch position with his right foot on the pitching rubber, is it a balk if, in one quick motion, he steps back off the rubber with his right foot and then pivots to first base as if to throw but does not release the ball?

The way it is described above it seems to be a 1-2 sequence, but it does sound awfully close to a jump-turn type of move. In which case it would be a balk if the pitcher did not throw the ball to first, correct?

[Jerry]

RBN3:
Let me ask you, if someone tells you, "Make sure to turn off the stove when you leave the house.", when would you turn off the stove?

In your question, the dropping of the hands to the side is one of several requirements that must be met "when" a pitcher disengages the rubber, not "immediately after" a pitcher desengages the rubber. As I posted earlier, by official interpretation, a pitcher has all the way up to when he reengages the rubber in prepration for coming to a Set or Windup. It has nothing to do with the process of making or faking a throw anywhere.

Jerry

[Rbn3]

not simply before I came back, because by the time I got back the house might have burned down.

Not trying to be a smart a##, but where can I find the official interpretation that clarifies this?

[Bfair]

Originally posted by Mel Hawkins
If a right-handed pitcher comes set in the stretch position with his right foot on the pitching rubber, is it a balk if, in one quick motion, he steps back off the rubber with his right foot and then pivots to first base as if to throw but does not release the ball?

Technically F1 is supposed to have his pivot foot touch before splitting of his hands for his throw.

In reality, nobody picks that booger.
Using the concept of advantage/disadvantage, when the pitcher's pivot foot moves backward it becomes quite obvious that he's not going to pitch. The runners should be pretty well aware to watch out at that point.

NOW, what you do want to watch for in that move is to be certain that the pitcher does not split his hands before moving his pivot foot backward.
THAT IS A BALK.............

The split of the hands is commitment to pitch if his foot has not committed him otherwise, and a wise runner who knows how to steal will be off for the races at the split of the handsif F1's feet have not committed him to a base. If you allow F1 to go anywhere other than home plate if his foot is not committed but after splitting his hands, then you've given F1 a significant advantage.


Just my opinion,

Freix