phillycheese:
You may want to go back and read the examples under 7.13. It effects hits to the outfield also but depends on the sitution what happens.

I've read 7.13 many times. The only time no runs would score with a bases loaded situation would be if it were an infield hit. A ball hit to the outfield would score a minimum one run, depending on PU judgment of base value of hit.

<i> Originally posted by phillycheese </i>

<i> I've read 7.13 many times. The <b> only </b> time no runs would score with a bases loaded situation would be if it were an infield hit. A ball hit to the outfield would score a minimum one run, depending on PU judgment of base value of hit. </i>

Not true: Try this:


EXAMPLE: Bases loaded, no outs. Batter hits a "clean" double, and tries for third thinking the throw is going home. The throw is cut-off and they get him out at third. Before the hit a runner left early. Guess what? The batter is out and ALL runners return. Because his out left bases empty, you put all runners back to their original bases.

In that same play, if the out on the batter had been the third out, no runs would count due to the fact that they could have been put back if it had not been the third out.

Pete Booth

True, my bad...

EXAMPLE: Bases loaded, no outs. Batter hits a "clean" double, and tries for third thinking the throw is going home. The throw is cut-off and they get him out at third. Before the hit a runner left early. Guess what? The batter is out and ALL runners return. Because his out left bases empty, you put all runners back to their original bases.


I can see how your example makes sense( I just erased a long paragraph attempting to rebuff, but answered my own question!!!!)

The point I was trying to make earlier is that it is wrong to say that no runners will score on any hit with the bases loaded. The dang book goes through all the trouble to list 16 examples of where to place runners based on how many on and where and what type of hit, then at the end, note 2 says "For purpose of these examples, it is assumed that the batter-runner remains at the base last acquired safely."
Ok, Why no examples of what happens if he makes an out trying to stretch a hit, as per your example?
Further, what happens if he does make three on the throw to the plate? I'm going to take a stab now and say that the base value of the hit was a double, he took three either on a throw or error, send him back to 2, and a runner back to 3. I can see the coaches coming unglued over this one. :eek: ( Time out, can I have the microphone to the PA please, Attention all parents in the stands, little Johnny made a heads up play taking third on the throw home, which little Billy beat by a mile, but because little Petie left third early, never mind he would have scored anyway on account of the ball hitting the fence on the fly, we have to send Johnny back to second and Billy back to third. Petie, who made the mistake, still gets to score. Billy, where are you, get back to third, no, quit crying, let go of your mommies leg and get back to third.) Egads, what a mess. Why make it so dern complicated. The base value of the hit should simply force the runners in accordingly, who cares if the batter makes an out later and frees up a base. I understand if a runner makes an out, but golly.
Thanks for letting me vent.
Phil :D

[QUOTE]Originally posted by phillycheese


Try the below site as Jim Booth at eteamz does an excellent job in explaining rule 7.13


http://www.eteamz.com/baseball/rules...0Hit%20Occurs/

Pete Booth

thanks, I'll check it out.