Iiitbtsb

[buckeyetc71]

You got it right. This is a balk because F1 stepped (feinted) to an unoccupied base (third).
Regards,
Tom

[SanDiegoSteve]

Originally Posted by buckeyetc71

You got it right. This is a balk because F1 stepped (feinted) to an unoccupied base (third).
Regards,
Tom

Yes, and that means it was a balk to 3rd base, not 2nd, so IIITBTSB still applies.

[JJ]

OK, I give up. What does "IIITBTSB" mean?

JJ

[Rcichon]

"It Is Impossible To Balk To Second Base"

[Paul L]

To which the Tim C. corollary is that if the balk is based on the failure to step towards second, then it is not a balk "to" second.

[justanotherblue]

Originally Posted by Paul L

To which the Tim C. corollary is that if the balk is based on the failure to step towards second, then it is not a balk "to" second.

And with that, I can finally agree, you can't balk to second. Because he stepped toward third, instead of second.

[SanDiegoSteve]

Originally Posted by justanotherblue

And with that, I can finally agree, you can't balk to second. Because he stepped toward third, instead of second.

I can't resist trying to come up with one.

What about when the pitcher spins around and steps toward second, feints to second, and 2nd base is unoccupied and R1 not even moving. The balk advances R1 to 2nd. Is this a balk to 2nd base?