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TWO RUNNERS ON WITH TWO OUTS. BATTER HITS A HOME RUN, BATTER-RUNNER TOUCHES FIRST & SECOND BUT MISSES THIRD THEN TOUCHES HOME. THE OPPOSING COACH THEN DEAD BALL APPEALS THAT THE BATTER-RUNNER MISSED THIRD. HOW MANY RUNS SCORE.
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I AGREE WITH TWO RUNS SCORING BUT I HAVE BEE CHALLENGED THAT RULE 9.1.1.C STATES THAT A MISSED BASE IS A FORCE OUT AND IN THIS EXAMPLE WOULD HAVE BEEN THE THIRD OUT THUS NO RUNS SCORE. I DISAGREE WITH HIS INTERPERTAION.
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A missed base is only a FORCE OUT when the based missed is a base the player was forced to touch by means the batter becoming a runner. In your example, if the batter had missed FIRST, then no runs would score. Or if the runner from first missed SECOND, that is a FORCE, no runs score.
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Quote:
2) 9-1-1c has nothing to do with force outs -- it deals with "preceeding runners". The batter was not a preceeding runner; he was a trailing runner. 3) 9-1-1d deals with force outs. THe word "resulting" must be the confusion. It doesn't mean that a base running error "results in" (i.e., automatically becomes) a force out. It means that a baserunning error that is also a force out negates all runs (if the out is the third or fourth). 4) Please don't type in all CAPS. It's hard to read and is considered shouting. THanks. |
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Consider this.
If the batter runner missed third then he would be creted with a double. If batter runner only leagly obtains second then R2 would have only been forced to advance to third with R1 being forced to home thus only one run scored.
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"Consider this.
If the batter runner missed third then he would be creted with a double. If batter runner only leagly obtains second then R2 would have only been forced to advance to third with R1 being forced to home thus only one run scored." You're wrong. This is a timing play. There is no force play involved. Two runs score. Bob |
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