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-   -   why is this so confusing to so many umpires? (https://forum.officiating.com/baseball/43629-why-so-confusing-so-many-umpires.html)

UmpJM Tue Apr 22, 2008 12:03am

Steve,

I misunderstood your point. I could live with that.

In my games, when I can't tell if it hit the hand or the bat first, I "judge" that it hit the hand first.

JM

SanDiegoSteve Tue Apr 22, 2008 12:07am

Quote:

Originally Posted by UmpJM (nee CoachJM)
Steve,

I misunderstood your point. I could live with that.

In my games, when I can't tell if it hit the hand or the bat first, I "judge" that it hit the hand first.

JM

Yes, if I can't tell, then the default call is that it hit the hand. My example was if it clearly hit bat first.

Dave Reed Tue Apr 22, 2008 02:09am

Steve, I'm going to quibble here. If the ball strikes the bat first, and then a finger, I think it is a batted ball which subsequently strikes the batter.

By common interpretation, a batted ball which strikes the batter, even if in the forward part of the box which is actually fair territory, it is a foul ball.

I can't support a call of fair when the ball strikes the batter. Either it is dead because it hit the batter first, or foul because it hit the batter second.

mbyron Tue Apr 22, 2008 06:22am

Dave Reed is correct. All the required citations are listed at the beginning of this thread.

TussAgee11 Tue Apr 22, 2008 10:51am

What Dave said... this is no different than a batter hitting one of his foot.

Either way you're going to have a) a foul ball or b) a dead ball strike. Only time the difference will matter is with 2 strikes.

BretMan Tue Apr 22, 2008 09:37pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by SanDiegoSteve
I'm talking about a possible near-simultaneous hit of both ball and finger, with the bat being hit just prior to maybe nicking a finger.

It's like a near-simultaneous bang-bang play at first base. There ain't no ties!

You have to use your judgment to to decide which got hit first, then you can apply the proper rule.


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