Tag or no?

[fitump56]

Originally Posted by mbyron

The rationale for J/R's position makes sense to me.

Doesnt to me.

1. A runner acquires a base when he passes it, whether or not he touches it. 2. BR may overrun 1B

When does he pss it? When he passes some parallel line between 1B and 2B? Or the legal 3' margin of same? What about the "run box", is it considerd here?

3. To allow F3 to appeal the missed base by tagging the base seems to defeat the purpose of (2).
4. On the other hand, some appeal must be allowed - the BR who misses 1B has committed a base-running error.

Has he? He acquired it.

5. Tagging the BR if he's trying to return seems to be a good compromise.
6. If BR is not trying to return, the fielder need not chase him, just tag the base.

"Return" as in snail moving in the general direction of the acquired base that he missed? Can he overrun it again and start the sequence all over?

Notice that the terms "relaxed action" and "un-relaxed action" are not essential to this reasoning.

Forgetting the fact that you've missed the "new" FED interps, noneof this is reasonable.