THE RUNNER: 7.05 (b)

[Bfair]

Originally posted by wpiced:

I have been wrestling with the second half of 7.05 (b) for some time now. So, what does it mean? "Each batter may,
... advance one base when:"

(b)... or when the batter hits a fair ball that touches another runner or the umpire before such ball has been touched by, or has passed a fielder, IF THE RUNNER IS FORCED TO ADVANCE: What?

First, I assume that "a fielder" can also be the pitcher in this case. Second, can anyone describe a play where the runner is FORCED TO ADVANCE and gets hit by a fair ball that hasn't passed a fielder?

I can only think of a bases loaded situation where R3 is trotting (forced) home and stumbless over a slow roller that is along the third base line.

Somehow, I think I am missing the point. Who knows the answer?

First, you mention 7.05(b), but I suspect you meant to state 7.04(b).

Your question actually addresses two rules: 7.04(b) and 7.08(f).

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Regarding 7.04(b), the rule merely states if an award is made to a following runner forcing another runner to advance, the the preceding runners forced to advance are also awarded a base.

What is important to note here, as Jim did, is that if any runner advances beyond the base he is entitled to due to his award and is put out by the defense for the third out, then any runner forced to score will be considered to have scored even if such 3rd out occurs before R3 actually touches home. However, note that this is due to the defense putting out the runner.

With two outs and a runner is forced score, if the 3rd out is due to the offense violating other rules, such as running the bases in reverse order or abandoning the basepaths before touching their next base of advance, then the runner is out the moment the umpire declares him out. If R3 has not touched home when such runner is declared out by the umpire, then R3's run does not score---even if he was forced to score.

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Don't make too many assumptions, here. Although Jim didn't specifically address this portion of your question, the pitcher for this rule IS NOT considered an fielder. Actual application correlates closely with rule 5.09(f) which addresses a batted ball striking an umpire. Rule 5.09(f) states:

5.09(f) The ball becomes dead and runners advance one base, or return to their bases, without liability to be put out, when a fair ball touches a runner or an umpire on fair territory before it touches an infielder including the pitcher, or touches an umpire before it has passed an infielder other than the pitcher. [my emphasis]

Rule 7.08(f) states:

Any runner is out when he is touched by a fair ball in fair territory before the ball has touched or
passed an infielder. The ball is dead and no runner may score, nor runners advance, except runners forced to advance. EXCEPTION: If a runner is touching his base when touched by an Infield Fly, he is
not out, although the batter is out.

Although you may note that 7.08(f) does not exclude the pitcher as an infielder, in actuality that is how the rule is applied. A ball passing a pitcher and striking a runner is not considered to have passed an infielder. If the pitcher touches and deflects such batted ball, then he IS considered an infielder.

The Fed has addressed this ambiguity in wording with their rule 6-1-5 which states a pitcher is not considered an infielder if a batted ball passes him and strikes an umpire or a runner.

Just my opinion,

Freix