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Old Mon Jan 07, 2002, 01:17pm
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Question

I was recently asked a question that I couldn't answer. I knew that someone here would be able to come up with the story.

Why was the dropped third strike rule made?
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John P
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Old Mon Jan 07, 2002, 02:36pm
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Quote:
Originally posted by JohmPMiller
I was recently asked a question that I couldn't answer. I knew that someone here would be able to come up with the story.

Why was the dropped third strike rule made?
In the beginning, batters could attempt for first after any third strike. Of course, the catchers played well behind the batter, so all were "dropped."

Then, the catchers got smart and started wearing protective equipment. They moved closer to the batter. Some (most) of the strikes became "caught." On these, the batter was nearly always out (that is, it was nearly impossible for the batter to make it to first before the ball when the ball was caught by the catcher). Since this was an "automatic" out, the rule was changed so that the batter couldn't try for first when the ball was caught.

So, it's not the "dropped third strike" rule that was added; it's the "caught third strike" rule that was added.

Now, as to why the rule was there in the first place, you'll have to ask Messr.s Spaulding and Doubleday.
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Old Tue Jan 08, 2002, 03:23pm
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No mystery here. In order to have an out, someone has to catch the ball.

Bob
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Old Tue Jun 01, 2004, 03:05pm
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...unless you bunted foul on Strike 3 or had an Infield Fly
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Old Tue Jun 01, 2004, 04:12pm
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I believe the dropped 3rd strike rule with less than 2 outs was to prevent easy double or even triple plays. R1 less than 2 outs, catcher drops the ball, throws to 2nd then 2nd throws to 1st = double play! That's why the rule isn't in effect with 2 outs.

Why is it in effect with no runners? It makes life interesting!
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Old Tue Jun 01, 2004, 10:52pm
DG DG is offline
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Quote:
Originally posted by tornado
I believe the dropped 3rd strike rule with less than 2 outs was to prevent easy double or even triple plays. R1 less than 2 outs, catcher drops the ball, throws to 2nd then 2nd throws to 1st = double play! That's why the rule isn't in effect with 2 outs.

Why is it in effect with no runners? It makes life interesting!
With no runners - so the defense does not get the benefit of a bad swing, if the pitch was a wild pitch or passed ball and goes to the backstop
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Old Wed Jun 02, 2004, 07:15am
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I've also seen batters with 2 strikes swing at a wild pitch to get on base. That's when I get annoyed with this rule.
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Old Wed Jun 02, 2004, 08:07am
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Quote:
Originally posted by tornado
Why is it in effect with no runners? It makes life interesting!
Because it's a hold-over from when the batter always had to be put out (at first, or by a tag) after three (or the required number) of strikes.

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