Overrunning 1B
 

Ok so my partner & I were talking tonight inbetween games, and he brought up some things (all are under OBR):

1) He said that a BR overrunning first base on a base on balls is liable to be put out (I know this is untrue according to J/R and the MLB Umpire Manual)

2) A BR is liable to be put out after overrunning 1B if "no play is being made on him"

I said both of these are wrong....I cant find any references/support for the second one though. Help please? And am I right on both?

Thanks.

Under what circumstances would he be out "if no play is being made on him"???

No idea, hes like "Clean hit to left field, BR overruns first base. On a throw over there, he is liable to be put out because no original play was being made on him"

There was no intent to go to second, ect.

I know this is insane right?

Yes, insane.

As long as he immediately returns to first, he cannot be tagged out. If he stops to adjust his junk or something, then he can be tagged out, but otherwise,no, it's insanity.

BTW, why didn't the runner in your example take a turn at first on his clean single to left field?

My partner used that as an example.

J/R page 43 clearly says "A BR cannot be tagged out when overrunning 1B after advancing to such a base on a batted ball, uncaught strike three, or live ball award."

I guess that evidence should convince my partner.

Hmmm...I don't think a B/R has the overrun privilege on a walk...

Hmmm,
 

According NFHS he CAN overrun . . .

According to Evans in OBR he CANNOT overrun.

Ooop, I guess I have that backwards. Sorry!

I think you have that reversed.

NFHS - cannot overrun on a walk.

Evans in the JEA says you can't in OBR but the MLBUM says you can. I'm voting with the MLBUM.

Sooo,
 

Again, I give the odd play that can happen is NFHS:

3 Balls and 2 Strikes . . . first base unoccupied.

A pitch is thrown that is in the dirt . . .

The batter places himself in a checked/unchecked swing position by "maybe" offering at the pitch.

The ball rolls away from F2 and the BR takes off for first.

BR beats the throw from F2 and overruns first base. HOWEVER, F3 for some unknown reason chases after the BR and tags him.

F2 then turns to the PU and says: "Can you get help? I think he went."

So now (correct me if I am wrong):

When the PU goes for help if:

The BU says: "No Swing" that makes this a base on balls (and normally a free trip to first base) but with the tag the BR is now out.

If BU says: "Yes, he went" that makes this a stirke out (and normally an out) but since this was not a walk the runner would now be safe.

In NFHS baseball is this concept correct?

Regards,

Unfortunately, Jim has yet to release his new JEA on CD. When Jim first taught that, it was the ruling opinion of MLB as well. It no longer is, and is no longer taught.

Define "over-running". Is the BR simply running past the base, making no attempt to advance to 2b? Or, is he making a wide turn at 1st, locating the ball and looking for the opportunity to advance to 2b if the ball gets past the OF?

Two different situations, two different rulings are possible.

Bob:
 

Any overrun . . . no turn or effort to proceed further is needed.

Regards,

Ok, in an OBR situation, BR hits a clean single and makes a wide looping turn at first and stops half way between first and second.

1) He makes no attempt to advance past this point, but does not return to 1b immediately, is he liable to be put out?
2) He makes no attempt to advance past this point, but returns immediately to 1b, is he liable to be put out?

Youre confusing overrunning with rounding