Selling the call, by NOT selling the call.

[mcrowder]

Originally Posted by JRutledge

Also he was not clear about who got to the ball

How? He said F1 fielded the ball. He also said F1 threw to F3, who caught the ball and then tagged the outfield side of the bag. Still not seeing why this wasn't clear.

and you had to claim it was a short ground ball (which he did not say BTW) so I was asking for clarification.

You're right. He didn't say it. My bad. Every ball I've ever seen F1 field was a short ground ball. My apologies for assuming that ALL must be. I guess you could be right that maybe F1 fielded this in right field and flipped to F3 behind him. That makes sense. (Although I guess this could explain why Nick took the play from the foul side! ) I also apologize that I assumed that when Nick said F1 fielded the ball, that F1 actually fielded the ball. My bad. Just as horrible - my assumption that when he said F1 threw to F3, he meant that F1 threw to F3. Sorry bout that.

There was, at MOST, a mild degree of ambiguity regarding what he was saying the FANS saw. The play itself was exceedingly clear, and was only made muddy by you (and others) who decided to assume he didn't mean what he said, and then claimed that your assumption didn't make sense.

The play itself - grounder to the pitcher on the first base line, thrown to the first baseman, who clearly tagged the outfield part of the bag - was pretty much perfectly spelled out. Not sure how this play suddenly became a grounder to first base, who threw to pitcher, who then had to have broken an ankle skipping OVER first base to clearly tag the outfield side of the bag. Do we really think THAT scenario is clearer than what he actually typed?