Selling the call, by NOT selling the call.

[SanDiegoSteve]

If F1 fielded the ball down the first base line, and threw to F3 at first base, how did you end up in foul territory? This is a situation where you should bust inside to as close to a 90 degree angle as you can get, as this is considered like a ball hit to the "imaginary box" area which extends from home plate to the mound, and to each foul line from there. This is not the time to go into foul ground (unless you are working 3 or 4 man). This isn't even a "2 steps fair" situation, either. As close to a 90 as you can get.

Also, why would you be hesitant to actually sell a call which you feel is not going to appear the same to others? If a call needs selling, then sell it. It does not make you look unsure when you correctly sell a call, and then strut back to A position. What looks bad is giving a wimpy, nonchalant call on a play that coaches and fans perceive could perhaps go either way.

A good "standing banger" along with "yeah, he got the bag!" done confidently should leave no doubt, and even fewer grumblings.

[bob jenkins]

1) I assume (yeah, I know) that Nick reversed F1 and F3.

2) I'd combine the two answers -- I'd point at the bag to indicate F1 touched it (probably with a verbal), and then I'd give a "normal" out call.

3) I agree that some calls are "oversold" and that some calls can be better sold if they are undersold. (Huh?)

[mcrowder]

Originally Posted by bob jenkins

1) I assume (yeah, I know) that Nick reversed F1 and F3.

It may turn out that I'm wrong ... but I don't assume that at all. I assume U1 was prevented from cutting to 90 degrees because of the first baseman running right at the bag as the pitcher fielded a short ground ball along the first base line. Otherwise, I have trouble visualizing the PITCHER making the catch and then touching the OUTFIELD side of first, as he posted. Surely this is F3 approaching from the OF side, and touching first on the OF side - where no fans/coaches could see it.

[SanDiegoSteve]

Originally Posted by SanDiegoSteve

If F1 fielded the ball down the first base line, and threw to F3 at first base, how did you end up in foul territory? This is a situation where you should bust inside to as close to a 90 degree angle as you can get, as this is considered like a ball hit to the "imaginary box" area which extends from home plate to the mound, and to each foul line from there. This is not the time to go into foul ground (unless you are working 3 or 4 man). This isn't even a "2 steps fair" situation, either. As close to a 90 as you can get.

Also, why would you be hesitant to actually sell a call which you feel is not going to appear the same to others? If a call needs selling, then sell it. It does not make you look unsure when you correctly sell a call, and then strut back to A position. What looks bad is giving a wimpy, nonchalant call on a play that coaches and fans perceive could perhaps go either way.

A good "standing banger" along with "yeah, he got the bag!" done confidently should leave no doubt, and even fewer grumblings.

Wow, what a concise post.

BTW, pointing at a play is part of selling a play in which something unusual has occurred. A point should not be used in conjunction with a nonchalant out signal on plays in which the outcome is not obvious too all. On obvious "on the tag" type calls at first, a point and simple nonchalant hammer are fine.