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In reviewing all of the prudent follow-ups to my original sitch, I think I did the right thing. F6 DID NOT in any way attempt a play on any runner than to tag R2. No attempt to throw home, etc. HAD F6 made an immediate play toward ANY base, I probably would've called the INT--which would've negated the run, with R2 and B1 being called out. Woulda shoulda coulda. I know how we don't like to deal in the subjunctive. Thanjks to all for taking time to respond. Ace
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This is analogous to a runner sliding home, contacting a fielder that has the ball, but not getting tagged. The runner did nothing illegal. You certainly wouldn't penalize THIS runner if F2 decided to throw elsewhere and failed to get an out (even if the out was prevented by the legal actions and collission between the runner and fielder) - why is there any desire to penalize the runner in the OP? You have NO rules basis for calling ANYTHING on this runner, barring intent.
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"Many baseball fans look upon an umpire as a sort of necessary evil to the luxury of baseball, like the odor that follows an automobile." - Hall of Fame Pitcher Christy Mathewson |
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The rule basis I have is: Quote:
However, had the fielder been attempting a different play (in the umpire's judgement) then I believe interference would have been an entirely appropriate call, supported by the rules, the Official Interpretation, and Authoritative Opinion. Yes? JM |
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"Many baseball fans look upon an umpire as a sort of necessary evil to the luxury of baseball, like the odor that follows an automobile." - Hall of Fame Pitcher Christy Mathewson |
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"Many baseball fans look upon an umpire as a sort of necessary evil to the luxury of baseball, like the odor that follows an automobile." - Hall of Fame Pitcher Christy Mathewson |
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mcrowder,
Both the MLBUM and J/R are quite explicit that, on a batted ball, the fielder's protection continues through his throw after gaining control of a fair batted ball - and that the runner's intent is irrelevant. The JEA interp is different, but it's also older and is NOT consistent with the current MLBUM interp. The current J/R and MLBUM interp is entirely consistent with the text of 7.08(b) which says the fielder is protected while he is "...attempting to make a play...". Merely gaining control of a batted ball is NOT, in and of itself, attempting to make a play (unless it's still in flight). Having gained control, the fielder must attempt to put out some runner for him to be "making a play". I think you're misreading what J/R says - and you're ignoring what the MLBUM explicitly says. JM |
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OK, I can see where you're going with that, and if for some reason F6 was moving with one continuous motion to throw elsewhere instead of tag this runner who's standing right next to him, I can see using the J/R interp to rule interference.
Now ... let's get back to the actual play. Fielder fields ball, runner incidentally collides, then runner is tagged. No interference. Ace indicated the had the fielder THEN tried to make a throw, he might be pursuaded to call interference. I still ask why. Surely you're not trying to take J/R's interp to mean you'd extend the protection from a collision so far that a fielder could be contacted, THEN make a tag, and THEN attempt a throw, and STILL get protection? I'll say it again. THIS runner did nothing wrong. THIS play is not interference, and would not be even if F6 tried to make a further play after the tag (which was after the contact).
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