Here's a contreversial one...

[TussAgee11]

2 outs, bases full 3-2 pitch. Now, these kids were inexperienced, and the man on third didn't think that it might not be a good idea to run full sprint to home.

Well, he stole home. But the pitch was strike 3. Now I have a time playor just a typical force..

Which happened first? Possession of the catcher? Or runner's foot hitting home? Or does it even matter?

Part of me thinks its a time play just because that's what makes sense. But, lets think if he dropped the ball. Now we have a force. Catcher stands up and throws to first. OUT! Now the runner doesn't score, because he can not score on a force play with 2 outs. BUT, he scored before the play even took place to begin with.

So I'm going with time play. I had this situation tonight, and luckily for me the catcher caught the ball before the runner got to home. But it was close, and I thought I may need to know what to do here in the future. Is it a time play all at PU's lap?