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Old Tue Jun 13, 2006, 09:51pm
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Join Date: Aug 2000
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Quote:
Originally Posted by LakeErieUmp
This one is for my personal development.
I was watching (in the stands, quitely) my son's 13 yr old travel team. R1 and R3. R1 takes off on the pitch. Cather throws to the pitcher for a cut-off play (why pitcher and not SS cutting in I'll never know). Pitcher throws to third to catch R3 who saw the cut-off play and headed back. Ball goes into dead ball territory. By this time R1 has already reached 2nd and has rounded just in case. BU and PU confab and give R3 home (correct) and R1 third.
Wouldn't the throw from catcher to pitcher (now an infielder, not that it matters) be the FIRST throw in the infield, and the pitcher to third base the SECOND throw, thus 2 bases from the time of THROW, not the time of PITCH?
Or is I thinking R1 gets home just me being too ticky-tacky?
Thanks for your input all!
Isn't it conceivable that the umpire judged R1 had not yet reached 2B when F1 threw the ball out of play? You may be only disagreeing with his judgment when you think you caught him in a misapplication of a rule.
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Old Tue Jun 13, 2006, 09:55pm
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Join Date: Apr 2006
Posts: 325
Yes, Dave, you're right on that point. And I certainly was not going to say anything from the stands since I don't exist there. However, in observing it seemed they were applying the first-throw rule as BU was looking at R1. I'll give them the benefit of the doubt of course.
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