*What would you do here: Same situation--bases loaded with no outs and a 1-1 count on the batter when the batter hits a pop fly that drifts and remains foul near third. In his attempt to get back to third to not be doubled up there, R3 runs into F5, who drops the ball

I'll bite:

If F5 is the fielder I decided is "protected" on the play ...

"IFF if Fair!"

then...

"That's interference - R3 is out!"

Time !

"BR - you get first base... and R1 you get second and R3 you get third."

'"Two outs...Let's Play!"

Incorrect, sorry.

Sorry - mis-typed it...

I Meant...

If F5 is the fielder I decided is "protected" on the play ...

"IFF if Fair!"

then...

"That's interference - R3 is out!"

Time !

"BR - you get first base... and R1 you get second and **R2** you get third."

'"Two outs...Let's Play!"

Any closer?

Nope. :)

"IFF if fair"

Is the ball no longer fair? So its not infield fly anymore.

Batter is out, runner is out. All other runners return.

If the ball was foul, R3 out, BR out as well if the ball would have been caught easily.

The ball was and ended up foul; but you're both still incorrect.

R3 is out for the interference, runners return to TOP bases, but the batter returns to bat with a 1-2 count. Note that this would have been the same ruling if F5 had caught the ball.

[Edited by UMP25 on Mar 18th, 2006 at 09:50 PM]

Actually, the more I think about it. I think I screwed the ol' pooch on this one.

The force on R3 was removed when R2 was hit by the ball.

Therefore, since he is no longer forced, R3 should be returned to 3rd base.

R1 advances to 2nd base due to being forced by the batter becoming a runner.

So the partner did rule correctly in sending R3 back to third.

PWL, you were right the first time! My bad. No runs should score, even with the bases loaded.

The R2 did not Intentionally let the ball hit him, so there was NO Interference.

R2 is out for being hit by a fair batted ball, R3 returns, R1 advances to 2nd due to being forced by BR being awarded 1st.

All this confusion comes from how silly this rule is. It would be much simpler if it was, for all cases other than (intentional) Interference; BR out, all runners return.

SanDiego Steve - you ain't the only one who blew one here...

I gave the Batter a single on a foul ball on this sub-thread:

*What would you do here: Same situation--bases loaded with no outs and a 1-1 count on the batter when the batter hits a pop fly that drifts and remains foul near third. In his attempt to get back to third to not be doubled up there, R3 runs into F5, who drops the ball."

One cup of coffee this morning and I saw my boo-boo immediately. By the way, 6 inches of fresh snow on the ground overnight and more fallin' here just south of Lake Ontario.

Lacrosse, anyone?

Agreed, in OBR and NCAA. In FED, the bater is out and all runners return. (THat's for UMP25's play -- R3 interferes with F5 catching a doul fly. In the original play -- R2 hit by a batted ball, the rulings are generally the same -- although it's "easier" to get a second out in FED)

Bob,

I specifically didn't mention FED, whether it was the same ruling or not. Call me stupid, call me just too traditional or old-fashioned, but I absolutely cannot stand FED rules. Hate 'em. Period.

End of soapbox. :D

Yes, there WAS interference, whether R2 intentionally let the ball hit him or whether it accidentally hit him. It still is interference. You're thinking that interference has to be some sort of intentional act. While that can occur in many situations, of course, I submit to you that most interferences are unintentional; yet they're still interferences nonetheless.

Well, if you're old-fashioned, you must like the the FED balk. (immediate deadball) It's the same as the old OBR rule.

I'm not THAT old-fashioned. :p

Right, but since it was different, I thought I'd clarify.