Pitcher in the set position however pivot foot is behind the rubber. Pitcher throws to first without stepping. Balk or no balk? Pitcher never toed the rubber.

<i> Originally posted by gold067 </i>
<b> Pitcher in the set position however pivot foot is behind the rubber. Pitcher throws to first without stepping. Balk or no balk? Pitcher never toed the rubber. </b>

FED rule 6-1-3

After F1 has placed his pivot foot on the ground clearly behind the plate, he then has the right to <b> throw or feint </b> to a base the same as that of any other infielder.

OBR equivalent 8.01(e)

Therefore, in your thread we do not have a Balk.

Pete Booth

How can the pitcher be in the set position with the pivot foot behind the rubber?

Pete:
Wouldn't you have a balk because he was simulating a set off the rubber. If he came set and stepped off and was a little slow dropping his hands that's one thing but to set off the rubber is whole different creature.

<i> Originally posted by Michael Taylor </i>
<b> Pete:
Wouldn't you have a balk because he was simulating a set off the rubber. If he came set and stepped off and was a little slow dropping his hands that's one thing but to set off the rubber is whole different creature. </b>

Michael as Bob mentioned, If F1 is off the rubber, he isn't in a set position to begin with, he is merely off the rubber
and is a fielder and therefore, as the rules states he / she may do those actions which any other fielder may do.

Pete Booth

If he is merely straddling the rubber with hand in glove, then that is nothing and he is free to throw or feint as he wishes. However, if while not in contact with the rubber he does his normal stretching motion, that would be a balk for simulating a motion associated with his pitch. Balk that regardless of whether a throw or feint occurs.

Just my opinion,

Freix

Steve:

That was my point. If he does his normal set but off the rubber then that's got to be a balk. If I'm wrong somebody please correct me but I would and have called that a balk with no complaints.

Michael,

In my eyes, you and Steve are correct. It's a motion associated with his normal delivery in this case from the stretch. It goes to the heart of the balk, intent to deceive the runner and in this case that appears to be what we have..

L.G.

I think it important to note, Michael, that merely being in a position that could be interpreted as a set position (straddling rubber with hand in glove) is not enough to call the balk. You must consider how he got to that position.

You have to to judge that the player is actually starting "his stretching motion to come set" while not in contact with the rubber. There will be other factors that come into play. After all, I have seen pitchers merely stretch their arms upward in a true "stretch" to remove tightness. We don't want rookies walking away calling a balk on someone for that action alone. It is a judgement call as to whether you feel the pitcher "is coming set" while off the rubber. If you think it occurred, it is a balk regardless of whether a throw or feint is made.

Freix

I agree but the original post said he was in the set position off the rubber and had never been on the rubber at all. I took this to mean he was actually set not just in a stretch position. Just straddling the the pitching plate is nothing but going to a full set is. IMO

Help me quick
 

Does anyone know if there have ever been any ambidextrous pitchers. Pitching from left and right side of the plate in the historyof MLB.

[QUOTE]Originally posted by PeteBooth
[B]<i> Originally posted by gold067 </i>
<b> Pitcher in the set position however pivot foot is behind the rubber. Pitcher throws to first without stepping. Balk or no balk? Pitcher never toed the rubber. </b>

FED rule 6-1-3

After F1 has placed his pivot foot on the ground clearly behind the plate, he then has the right to <b> throw or feint </b> to a base the same as that of any other infielder.

OBR equivalent 8.01(e)
Therefore, in your thread we do not have a Balk.
__________________________________________________ __________
I always see pitchers do the following:

Pitcher in set position. Lifts his pivot in the air in a movement back and completely off the mound. He throws the ball towards first as his foot is in the air in the process of disengaging. I guess theoretically this would be a balk because at the time of the throw his foot is still in the air but I have never seen an umpire call this. Would you call it a balk?

The set position can have two meanings:

1) The pitcher, while on the rubber, having his arms at his side would be the set position.

2) The pitcher, while on the rubber, bringing his arms together to come set would also be the set position.

You can't be in a set position off the rubber. You can only simulate the set position. If he is just stading there off the rubber, no balk. However, if he makes any movement associated with the set position while off the rubber(such as bringing his arms together to come set) than you have a balk.

The pivot foot must be on the ground before the ball is released on the throw. If you clearly see the throw first, balk it. IF you're unsure (a) don't balk it, or (b) balk it if it's close and the pitcher won't make it close anymore. correct answer depends on umpire, level of game, amount af "abuse" willing to take on first call vs. amount of "whining" willing to put up with if call isn't made, etc.