From another board...want to mkae sure I'm right before I answer.

A hit ball makes contact with the pitching rubber and goes directly into foul territory between homeplate and 1st(or 3rd). Fair or foul? Rule reference?

Foul.

I think the OBR reference is in 2.0-Foul

I don't know why so many people get confused about this. It is no different than if the ball hits any part of the ground and then rolls over either foul line before 1st and/or 3rd base. Just because it hits the rubber doesn't make it a fair ball. Hitting the rubber isn't the same as hitting the 1st or 3rd base bag. Now the question that needs to be asked is... Batter hits a line drive up the middle. The ball hits the front edge of second base and flies over the foul line between home and 3rd base where it rolls to a stop. Is this a fair or foul ball?

OP: Foul ball, all rulesets.

Question in previous post: Depends on the ruleset.

Thanks. I was 95% sure that it was a foul ball.

In what ruleset is it foul?

If there's a rule set that calls a batted ball hitting second base, then going into foul territory between first/third and home a "foul ball", I've never found it!

Mcrowder, which rule set are you infering would call this "foul"?

What if a pop-up lands 1 foot over 1st and 2 inches in fair territory? You're pointing fair right?
What if the ball bounces backward because of backspin, over the base without touching it and then rolls into foul territory?
If you have fair ball here you have to have fair ball if it bounces foul off of 2nd, 2nd is clearly past 1st and 3rd.
I don't know the rule that applies but I've got fair ball until someone shows me the error of my ways.

What if I'm an idiot or a member of Congress?

Bob P.

I can't believe there's any code in which a ball that hits 2B and then somehow rebounds foul within 3B or 1B would be ruled a foul ball. Definitely not in OBR. After all, a ball that hits 1B or 3B is fair even if it bounces backward foul without actually passing a base.

Fed has the 1B-3B line. A ball that touches behind that line is fair even if it subsequently rolls foul. (The pitcher's plate, of course, is in front of that line.) In OBR, such a ball is foul. I don't know how LL or other codes rule on that one.

Correct me if I'm wrong, but a ball that lands beyond the line directly between 1B and 3B is fair in FED, regardless of where it rolls, but in OBR, the ball must hit fair territory beyond 1B or 3B - meaning past the line between 1B and 2B or past the line between 2B and 3B.

I'd have to get my books out again, but I seem to remember that a perpendicular line drawn from 1B will intersect with a perpendicular line drawn from 3B at the CENTER of 2B (again... correct me if I'm wrong), which would put the front corner of 2B in front of the line mentioned above that makes it a fair ball.

Yes, this is a nit I'd never pick in a game, and this sitch is probably very TWP.

Why would the intersecting lines go to the middle of 2nd base?

If you draw the line from the front edge of 3rd and the front edge of 1st, will these lines not intersect at the front corner of 2nd?

OBR 2.00 Fair:

A FAIR BALL is a batted ball ...that touches first, second or third base, or that...

I think that answers your question.

Your FED reference was also correct.

And there you have it. :)

No no no no no no no.

Forget the bases themselves ... once the ball touches fair territory beyond 1st or 3rd (the definition of "beyond" differs between OBR and FED, but the principle is the same), it is a fair ball, even if it rolls untouched back across the foul line between 1B or 3B and home.