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Old Mon Aug 08, 2005, 12:59pm
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Clarification would be appreciated.

Situation: Runner on second base, batter at the plate.

Issue: Pitcher legally delivers called strike, and receives ball back from catcher, at the front of the mound, but still on the dirt portion. Pitcher turns, starts back to the rubber. Without reaching the rubber, the pitcher throws to the shortstop, who is in his normal straight-away fielding position, and the shortstop then chases the runner, who is leading, back to second base. Umpire calls a balk, saying the pitcher threw to a position player and not to an occupied base.

Our claim is since the pitcher never returned to the rubber, he should be allowed to throw to the shortstop. There is no issue with deceiving the runner, since the pitcher did not return to the rubber to face the batter. Are we right?
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Old Mon Aug 08, 2005, 01:03pm
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Quote:
Originally posted by Coach AJ
Our claim is since the pitcher never returned to the rubber, he should be allowed to throw to the shortstop. There is no issue with deceiving the runner, since the pitcher did not return to the rubber to face the batter. Are we right?
The pitcher can throw to the shortstop at any time wherever he is, even if he is on the rubber.
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Old Mon Aug 08, 2005, 01:11pm
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Unhappy Sorry, No balk in this play

Umpires are human coach. It looks like he made a mistake.

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Old Mon Aug 08, 2005, 02:28pm
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Cool


Coach,

Once the pitcher has disengaged the rubber, he becomes an infielder for the purposes of any attempted play on the runner. No balk.

Tim.
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