Quote:
Originally posted by David Emerling
Quote:
Originally posted by wyatt
In the J/R - page 100 in my edition, example 1 under "Examples: Runner/Fielder Contact, Not Interference"
"The batter chops a ball along the first base line in foul territory. The pitcher is reaching for it, but cannot touch it because of contact by the BR. The ball, untouched, rolls foul: no interference, foul ball."
Hmmmmmmm.
|
Do you think the ruling would be any different if the ball eventually rolled into FAIR territory even though, at the time of the "interference", the ball was in foul territory?
David Emerling
Memphis, TN
|
Maybe yes - but I can't find anything in the J/R about it. The fact that the ball was foul and stays foul seems to make this a no interference sitch according to J/R.
Then again maybe F1 isn't considered to be making a play on a foul ball on the ground since there is no play to be made.
When the ball crosses to fair maybe F1 becomes protected at that point but I have no citation on that.
Fri Jul 29, 2005, 10:12am
Threaded Mode
