Quote:
Originally posted by wyatt
In the J/R - page 100 in my edition, example 1 under "Examples: Runner/Fielder Contact, Not Interference"
"The batter chops a ball along the first base line in foul territory. The pitcher is reaching for it, but cannot touch it because of contact by the BR. The ball, untouched, rolls foul: no interference, foul ball."
Hmmmmmmm.
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Do you think the ruling would be any different if the ball eventually rolled into FAIR territory even though, at the time of the "interference", the ball was in foul territory?
David Emerling
Memphis, TN