![]() |
Stepping Off
Had this happen in a game.
R2. Pitcher in the stretch taking signs. Coach says to "step off." Pitcher steps off by bringing his free foot back behind the rubber towards second. I call nothing. Now, later in the inning, there was just R1. Pitcher did the same move. I called balk. When coach asked for an explanation and why i didn't call anything the first time, i told him that since there was a runner at second the first time, that step was considered a fake to second. Since he did it with second unoccupied, it's a fake to an unoccupied base and a balk. So, 2 questions for ya: 1) Was my ruling right in the story above? 2) Is the pitcher required to legally disengage with the pivot foot even though he hasn't come set yet? Please note any FED/OBR difference. Thanks! -Bossman |
OBR: balk - feint to an unoccupied base and no attempted play.
IF, the R1 was making a break for 2B, I would probably allow the move b/c their is a play upon the runner. |
Hmmm,
The only reason I haven't commented on this yet is because I can't figure out what the guy was doing.
I've been standing in the middle of my office for the last 10 mins trying to go through the two situations. With the exception of my administrative assistant looking at me like I'm nuts, I have not yet understood what was happening. |
Lemme see if I have this right.
Play one with R2, the pitcher steps back towards 2B with his non pivot foot while in contact with the rubber, correct? I'm trying to understand how the move was done. To answer your second question, the pitcher still must legally disengage even if he has not come set yet. |
it was a simple cross over the front of the body with the free leg.
to clarify- in my original post, delete the word "back" in the sentence describing the move. |
A very similar discussion is going on at McGriff's board.
http://www.gmcgriff.com/discus/messa...tml?1119576792 |
Re: Hmmm,
Quote:
|
All times are GMT -5. The time now is 08:34am. |