I was doing a 14 year-old tournament this last weekend.

1st game, early in the day, R2 leads off. F1 tries a pick-off, and the ball sails into center. R2 heads for 3rd where he's gunned down by F8.

Late in the day (my 3rd game), I have this team again. R2 leads off. F1 tries a pick-off, and the ball sails into center. R2 heads for 3rd where he's gunned down by F8.

Deja vu?

After the 2nd time, it was looking like this was a planned play.

I called nothing but the out at 3rd both times.

If you saw this multiple times in a game would you let it go? Would you call a balk?

Why would you call it a balk?

On what grounds would you balk this?

Did the pitcher throw to an unoccupied base? Nope
Did the pitcher use any illegal footwork or do anything illegal with his hands? Not according to your post.

It sounds like they have a kid with a gun in center, and run this play all the time. There's nothing to balk here.

You got it right, good call.

After these plays, I'm two outs closer to going home. The pitcher has thrown towards second base, the feilder failed to get it. Coach of the offense is going to have a hard time convincing me otherwise. As long as the throw is to second and not a rainbow to F8, I've got outs.

-Josh

Play 1 - Good play
Play 2 - Good play.

If I saw it 100 times in a game, there is no way it is even slightly associated with a balk.

What in the world, would make you think this is a balk?

Why would the quality of the throw change anything? I don't care if he throws to the center field fence, it's still not a balk.

And what if it is a rainbow to F8, F7 or even F9?

After thinking about these plays for a couple of days, I started to 2nd guess myself. I was thinking that F1 wasn't throwing to 2nd base, he's throwing to center field.

Thanks for your input.

And what if he was?

tornado,

He's not required to throw to 2B - only to <b>step</b> to 2B (i.e. more to 2B than 1B or 3B). As long as he completes the step, he is perfectly legal in <b>throwing</b> the ball to F8 (or F7 or F9 for that matter).

JM

Then what would be the difference if the pitcher stepped to second and threw to F6 (playing deep in shallow left center)?

"8.05(d) The pitcher, while touching his plate, throws, or feints a throw to an unoccupied base, except for the purpose of making a play."

If the pitcher can't throw to an unoccupied base, why can he throw a ball into center field if that is clearly his intention? That's why I included the part about a rainbow throw to the centerfielder. I'm not an expert by any means so maybe I shouldn't be looking at it like this, but that's how my mind was working. Please let me know if I need to think another direction.

-Josh

Nothing. Better be awake, runner.

Matthew F. & U of I Blue,

The pitcher is allowed to <b>feint</b> to an occupied 2B. As long as he completes the <b>step</b> legally (the step is <b>required</b> for an "in contact" pitcher - else, balk), he may throw the ball (or not) wherever he wishes.

JM

Duh
 

My fault on that. I was forgetting about the pitcher being in contact with the plate. Once he completes his feint towards second and comes off the plate, he can do whatever he wishes. My bad for not thinking it through fully before posting.

-Josh