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Varsity FED game. I am BU. B1 1st at bat hits a single and sends his bat past the ear of PU as he releases it. B1 is now R1. PU calls time and warns R1 and coach if R1 throws bat again, R1 wil be ejected. 3rd inning, same B1 comes to plate. With a 2-1 count, B1 hits a long foul ball and the bat hits PU in the foot as he lets it go to run. PU tosses B1 and tells coach to get a batter in to replace B1 who has been ejected. Does B2 ( the replacement batter )assume the count of 2-2 that was on the ejected B1? That is what the PU did. I was not consulted. I would like to know if that is the case, what FED rule supports that theory.
Thanks in advance.
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Tony Smerk OHSAA Certified Class 1 Official Sheffield Lake, Ohio |
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Seriously ...
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What a little baby - is he going to eject the F2 when he gets hit with the ball. I would wonder what rule he is using to back up his actions - throwing a bat is covered in the rules, releasing the bat following a hit ball is not unless it is intentional. At most a warning would suffice until I have something a little more flagrant. Thanks David |
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Re: Seriously ...
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It was applied correctly in the first case (when the warning was given). It may have been correct in the second (ejection), depending on the umpire's perspective of the action. |
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At Bat Batter Ejected
In all of the leagues where I umpire the batter is not ejected...but after a team warning for the first batter slinging the bat, any subsequent batter who does so is not ejected but called out (unless there is some sort of malicious intent that would get him ejected as well). So in my case I usually just get an out. Buy the way, I do not know what the federation rules say about this.
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