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bossman72 Fri May 20, 2005 01:08pm

Situation is R2, R3. 1 out. Batter hits a fly to F8. 2 outs. F8 tries to nail R3 at home, but the ball is thrown wild and both runners score. Defense then appeals that R3 left third too early. The umpire calls him out.

No runs score on this play, correct?

My reasoning would be that if you appeal for a missed base or a tag up play for the third out after the play has ended, then no following runners can score. Is this right? Would this also be true for that rare "4th out?"

Thanks

bossman

UmpJM Fri May 20, 2005 01:24pm

bossman72,

I would say you have pretty much <b>nailed</b> this one. Same logic on an "advantageous 4th out" appeal.

For example, if we modify your original sitch so that the defense attempts to play on R2 (instead of R3) and, instead of throwing the ball wildly, actually makes a good throw and R2 is tagged out at the plate (for the third out), a subsequent successful appeal of the R3's failure to retouch on the catch would nullify the R3's apparent run.

JM

mbyron Fri May 20, 2005 10:09pm

4.09(b)
Quote:

Approved Ruling: One out, Jones on third, Smith on second. Batter Brown flies out to center. Two out. Jones
scores after catch and Smith scores on bad throw to plate. But Jones, on appeal, is adjudged to have left third
before the catch and is out. Three outs. No runs.


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