Does the run count?

[Gre144]

R1 and R3 are on base as B1 hits a fly ball to F9 who catches the ball for the second out. R3 tags up and scores but R1 doesn't tag up. F9 throws the ball to F3 before R1 can get back to first base resulting in the third out. This out occurs after R3 touches home.

Was this third out considered a force play thus negating the run? Or does the run count because R3 scored before the out was called on R1?(A time play)

FED rules please.

Thanks,

Greg

[Edited by Gre144 on Mar 24th, 2001 at 02:25 PM]

[JRutledge]

I do not have exact rule reference, but I do not see why the run would not score. This was not a force play per say, because the out was made after a catch. The run has got to score. I will look it up to be for sure, but I do not see why it would not.

[bob jenkins]

Originally posted by Gre144
R1 and R3 are on base as B1 hits a fly ball to F9 who catches the ball for the second out. R3 tags up and scores but R1 doesn't tag up. F9 throws the ball to F3 before R1 can get back to first base resulting in the third out. This out occurs after R3 touches home.

Was this third out considered a force play thus negating the run? Or does the run count because R3 scored before the out was called on R1?(A time play)

FED rules please.

Thanks,

Greg

[Edited by Gre144 on Mar 24th, 2001 at 02:25 PM]

Look in 2-24-1 (A force out is ...) and decide whether that out at first was a force out.

If it's not a force out, then it's a timing play.

Here's a hint: "Force out" and "the ability to get an out by tagging a base" are not the same thing. Nor, (to address another common point of confusion) does a force out require a tag of a base.

[PAblue87]

A force out can only happen when THE RUNNERS ARE FORCED TO ADVANCE TO A BASE BY THE RESULT OF THE BATTER BECOMEING A RUNNER. In this situation the runner is not FORCED back to the base, even though the defense need only touch the base it is still not a FORCE.