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LMan Mon May 09, 2005 10:24am

http://www.washingtonpost.com/wp-dyn...050800592.html

ChapJim Mon May 09, 2005 11:02am

An Exception to IIITBTSB??
 
I didn't see the game but according to the Washington Post article, with runners on second and third, LHP Kline balked when he checked the runner at second. Plate umpire Davidson called the balk and later said, "He moved his shoulder to deceive the runner."

Anyone know what balk rule was violated? I can't think of one.

Do we have an exception to "It is impossible to balk to second base."??

UmpJM Mon May 09, 2005 11:13am

ChapJim,

I believe it is an 8.05(c) violation. That is, in the umpire's judgement, the "legally set" pitcher <b>started</b> to make a move towards 2B and failed to complete the "direct step" required on a feint to 2B.

I saw a replay of the balk on ESPN last night and couldn't for the life of me see what the pitcher did wrong. Of course, I'm not a MLB umpire and the guy who called it is.

JM

JRutledge Mon May 09, 2005 11:28am

Considering that the angle was from behind the pitcher not sure could see what happen or did not happen. All you could see is that Kline broke his hands. You could not see what his front shoulder before he stepped off the pitching rubber. That is very key in that call.

Peace

Tim C Mon May 09, 2005 11:29am

Nope,
 
The balk was identified as a "flex" of the shoulder.

The balk would have been for NOT throwing the pitch to the plate.

I do believe that the camera angle used by all highlight shows is not catching what "might" have been an action with the front shoulder.

Plus it wouldn't be "Balk A Day Bob" if this wasn't called.

IIITBTSB

GarthB Mon May 09, 2005 11:43am

Quote:

Originally posted by CoachJM
ChapJim,

I believe it is an 8.05(c) violation. That is, in the umpire's judgement, the "legally set" pitcher <b>started</b> to make a move towards 2B and failed to complete the "direct step" required on a feint to 2B.

I saw a replay of the balk on ESPN last night and couldn't for the life of me see what the pitcher did wrong. Of course, I'm not a MLB umpire and the guy who called it is.

JM



The shoulder flex was the beginning of his move and his committment to pitch to home. When he did not, it was a balk, but it was not a balk to second. IIITBTSB 99.9% of the time.

thumpferee Mon May 09, 2005 12:44pm

BALK!
 
If there was ever a technical balk called, this is one.

I watched it 6 times on ESPN and the first 5 times I saw nothing. The last time I saw a twitch, and then Kline stepped off, busted!

I personally wouldn't have called it a balk in a million years!

Game tied, balk in the winning run? PU got balls!

Who has this in their signature? Need an out, call an out. Need a run, balk it in.




officialtony Mon May 09, 2005 01:12pm

Re: BALK!
 
Quote:

Originally posted by thumpferee

Who has this in their signature? Need an out, call an out. Need a run, balk it in.




cowboyfan1 has the signature you spoke of

U_of_I_Blue Mon May 09, 2005 02:45pm

Ok, call me stupid, but what is IIITBTSB? thanks!

UmpJM Mon May 09, 2005 02:59pm

U of I Blue,

"It Is Impossible To Balk To Second Base"

Actually, it's <b>almost</b> impossible.

JM

Tim C Mon May 09, 2005 03:14pm

Nope.
 
There is no need for "almost" . . .

UmpJM Mon May 09, 2005 03:48pm

Tim,

What would you call this?

R1 only. RHP, who has legally come set, turns and throws to 2B in the mistaken belief that the R1 was attempting to steal 2B. However, the R1 is still at 1B and never even <b>faked</b> that he was going to go to 2B.

Reference:

"<i><b>8.05</b>
If there is a runner, or runners, it is a balk when_ ...(d) The pitcher, while touching his plate, throws, or feints a throw to an unoccupied base, except for the purpose of making a play; ... </i>"

Personally, I'd call it a "balk to second base". I think "almost" (or "nearly", or something like that) is required for the aphorism to be correct.

JM

Tim C Mon May 09, 2005 03:53pm

Well,
 
Pretty simple really:

If the RH Pitcher turned towards first base he then balked for failing to throw to first.

If the RH pitcher turned towards third base he then balked for failing to complete the pitch.

While it is technically true that the balk is worded for throwing to an unoccupied base the violation is really one of the two that I listed.

Do I get parting gifts?

UmpJM Mon May 09, 2005 04:17pm

Tim,

Pretty good. I still think 8.05(d) is certainly more "on point" in the situation described above and it <b>is</b> a "balk to second", but you are correct that the move I described could also be balked under 8.05(a) or (c), depending on which direction the pitcher turned.

How about this one:

R2 (only) and a RHP has come legally set. In an ill-conceived attempt to pick-off the R2, the pitcher lifts his pivot foot, pivoting off his "free foot" and makes a "snap throw" to 2B, releasing the throw prior to "landing" his pivot foot behind the rubber.

Again, to me, the pitcher has clearly "balked" in making a move to 2B.

JM

Tim C Mon May 09, 2005 04:23pm

And,
 
We are beginning to waste bandwidth.

These type discussions are why some MLB Umpires intone that the internet is where umpires (and coaches I guess) go to practice mental masturbation.

I have never called a balk to second base.


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