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  #1 (permalink)  
Old Sat May 07, 2005, 12:34am
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a runner was caught in a run down between first and second. after several throws back and forth, the first baseman was about 4 feet in front of first base without the ball and the runner basically ran into him tgrying to get back to first. he would of easily of been safe gettting back to first because they screwed up the run down. the runner had started from first base on this play. under fed rules would he get second base, even though he was going back to first?
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Old Sat May 07, 2005, 12:44am
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Yes. One base from last legally occupied base.
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Old Sat May 07, 2005, 06:29am
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Quote:
Originally posted by yankeesfan
a runner was caught in a run down between first and second. after several throws back and forth, the first baseman was about 4 feet in front of first base without the ball and the runner basically ran into him tgrying to get back to first. he would of easily of been safe gettting back to first because they screwed up the run down. the runner had started from first base on this play. under fed rules would he get second base, even though he was going back to first?
Garth is correct on the award however, for clarity, where exactly was the ball? Was the first basemen about to receive it? The fielder has a right to be there if the play was "immenient". Which I know is up for discussion but, it could change what you perceive to be obstruction.
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Old Sat May 07, 2005, 06:59am
DG DG is offline
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Quote:
Originally posted by jicecone
Quote:
Originally posted by yankeesfan
a runner was caught in a run down between first and second. after several throws back and forth, the first baseman was about 4 feet in front of first base without the ball and the runner basically ran into him tgrying to get back to first. he would of easily of been safe gettting back to first because they screwed up the run down. the runner had started from first base on this play. under fed rules would he get second base, even though he was going back to first?
Garth is correct on the award however, for clarity, where exactly was the ball? Was the first basemen about to receive it? The fielder has a right to be there if the play was "immenient". Which I know is up for discussion but, it could change what you perceive to be obstruction.
Unlike a play at the plate where a catcher might have to go up the line 4 feet to catch a throw off line, the 1B man does not have to be 4 feet from the bag, in the way of the runner, to catch a rundown toss. I have obstruction on any rundown if a fielder impedes the runner in any direction.
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Old Sat May 07, 2005, 08:39am
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the first baseman was not about to receive the ball, he made a bad throw and the shortstop was trying to pick it up and run after the runner. he would not have been involved in the play at all at that time.
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Old Sat May 07, 2005, 09:02am
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I'm with Garth and DG

Award 2nd to R1!

Benefit of doubt goes to the runner IMO in this case.

As you said yankeesfan: "the first baseman was not about to receive the ball, he made a bad throw and the shortstop was trying to pick it up and run after the runner. he would not have been involved in the play at all at that time".

What did you call/award?

Or are you a coach/parent?

What happened?
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  #7 (permalink)  
Old Sat May 07, 2005, 02:19pm
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Quote:
Originally posted by DG
Quote:
Originally posted by jicecone
Quote:
Originally posted by yankeesfan
a runner was caught in a run down between first and second. after several throws back and forth, the first baseman was about 4 feet in front of first base without the ball and the runner basically ran into him tgrying to get back to first. he would of easily of been safe gettting back to first because they screwed up the run down. the runner had started from first base on this play. under fed rules would he get second base, even though he was going back to first?
Garth is correct on the award however, for clarity, where exactly was the ball? Was the first basemen about to receive it? The fielder has a right to be there if the play was "immenient". Which I know is up for discussion but, it could change what you perceive to be obstruction.
Unlike a play at the plate where a catcher might have to go up the line 4 feet to catch a throw off line, the 1B man does not have to be 4 feet from the bag, in the way of the runner, to catch a rundown toss. I have obstruction on any rundown if a fielder impedes the runner in any direction.
It seems in this case the call was correct, however I'm not buying your analogy. If that fielder is in the act of receiving the ball, then he can be there.
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Old Sat May 07, 2005, 09:08pm
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"It seems in this case the call was correct, however I'm not buying your analogy. If that fielder is in the act of receiving the ball, then he can be there."


i never said he was in the act of receiving the ball, where did you get that from? go back and read my statement. i am an umpire amd i awarded the runner second base.
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  #9 (permalink)  
Old Sat May 07, 2005, 10:41pm
DG DG is offline
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[QUOTE]Originally posted by jicecone
[B][QUOTE]Originally posted by DG
[B]
Quote:
Originally posted by jicecone
Quote:
Originally posted by yankeesfan
It seems in this case the call was correct, however I'm not buying your analogy. If that fielder is in the act of receiving the ball, then he can be there.
Are you trying to say that a 1B man has a right to be 4 feet from the bag to receive a throw from the 2B area in a rundown, does not have the ball, impedes the runner and you don't call obstruction?
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  #10 (permalink)  
Old Sun May 08, 2005, 07:04am
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Quote:
Originally posted by yankeesfan
"It seems in this case the call was correct, however I'm not buying your analogy. If that fielder is in the act of receiving the ball, then he can be there."


i never said he was in the act of receiving the ball, where did you get that from? go back and read my statement. i am an umpire amd i awarded the runner second base.
Your right, I agree. I was makig a genaralised statement to DG.
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  #11 (permalink)  
Old Sun May 08, 2005, 07:12am
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[QUOTE]Originally posted by DG
[B][QUOTE]Originally posted by jicecone
[B]
Quote:
Originally posted by DG
Quote:
Originally posted by jicecone
Quote:
Originally posted by yankeesfan
It seems in this case the call was correct, however I'm not buying your analogy. If that fielder is in the act of receiving the ball, then he can be there.
Are you trying to say that a 1B man has a right to be 4 feet from the bag to receive a throw from the 2B area in a rundown, does not have the ball, impedes the runner and you don't call obstruction?
No I didn't say that at all. I am saying, that if that fielder is in the act of receiving the balll, (4 feet) from the bag, then he can be there and the runner must go around, slide, avoid contact. However the fielder is not impeding the runner at that point. (Fed ball)
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