Batter Hit by Pitch - Continued

[PeteBooth]

OBR 6.08(b) The batter becomes a runner and is entitled to first base without liability to be put out (provided he advances to and touches first base) when

He is touched by a pitched ball which he is not attempting to hit unless (1) The ball is in the strike zone when it touches the batter, or (2) The batter makes no attempt to avoid being touched by the ball; If the ball is in the strike zone when it touches the batter, it shall be called a strike, whether or not the batter tries to avoid the ball. If the ball is outside the strike zone when it touches the batter, it shall be called a ball if he makes no attempt to avoid being touched.

OBR 6.06(c) He interferes with the catcher's fielding or throwing by stepping out of the batter's box or making any other movement that hinders the catcher's play at home base.


Ok here's the sitch:

r1 2 outs - r1 stealing on the pitch

F1 delivers to B1 (ball in flight not a ball that strikes the ground first). B1 makes no attempt to get out of the way and the ball hits him - out of the strike zone.


Since, B1 did not make an attempt to get out of the way, he is in effect purposely and intentionally being hit with the ball.

My question? can we rule that B1 intentionally interfered with F2's ability to throw out r1, hence call out r1 to end the inning? or

is it simply dead ball - ball on batter return r1 back to first?

B1 (out of the corner of his eye), might think that r1 didn't get a good jump and B1 can kill 2 birds with 1 stone . By purposely getting hit with the ball - there's no chance for F2 to throw out r1. Also, B1 might bate the PU in giving him first thereby having r1 and r2.

Your comments as always Thanks

Pete Booth

[bluezebra]

Dead ball. Ball on batter. No interference. R1 goes back to 1B.

If the batter intentionally moves into the pitch, I'd rule interference, and call the batter out.

Bob

[Warren Willson]

Originally posted by PeteBooth
r1 2 outs - r1 stealing on the pitch

F1 delivers to B1 (ball in flight not a ball that strikes the ground first). B1 makes no attempt to get out of the way and the ball hits him - out of the strike zone.

Since, B1 did not make an attempt to get out of the way, he is in effect purposely and intentionally being hit with the ball.

My question? can we rule that B1 intentionally interfered with F2's ability to throw out r1, hence call out r1 to end the inning? or

is it simply dead ball - ball on batter return r1 back to first?

B1 (out of the corner of his eye), might think that r1 didn't get a good jump and B1 can kill 2 birds with 1 stone . By purposely getting hit with the ball - there's no chance for F2 to throw out r1. Also, B1 might bate the PU in giving him first thereby having r1 and r2.

Pete,

When the batter allows himself deliberately to be hit outside the strike zone, while not in the act of offering at the pitch, then you have a dead ball, ball on the batter and runners return. That is the penalty regardless of whether or not you believe the catcher could possibly have retired the runner.

If the umpire is unable to distinguish the batter's intent, and so awards him 1st base anyway, that's just baseball.

I'm afraid I can't see ANY way this can be ruled deliberate interference under the rules when it is stated that it is the ball that hits the batter and not the other way around. I would need to see a batter positively, deliberately and actively interfere with the ball or the catcher for an interference call to be justified. Remember, interference is the ACT of the team at bat, and that usually means a positive ACT rather than just passively allowing something to occur - unless otherwise clearly stated in a particular rule of course.

Cheers,