Does the FED rulebook or casebook define "unnocupied and occupied bases"

[aevans410]

(continued from topic title) in terms of a balk? I had a coach question what an occupied base was, but couldn't cite a rules reference. I looked last night, but either overlooked it (most likely, my kids were unruly last night, or it doesn't exist. Any help would be appreciated.

Thanks in advance.

[bob jenkins]

Use the dictionary definition.

What's the specific play in question?

[aevans410]

Sorry about that, I meant where it says the base occupied is by the base runner.

Pick off attempt to first, the first baseman sneaks in behind R1. R1 gets back in time but the coach wants a balk because he claims the base was "unoccupied" by the defense.

[mcrowder]

Why would it matter if the base was unoccupied by the defense? The base thrown to must be occupied by the OFFENSE (or a play being made... such as a runner breaking for 2nd so early that pitcher throws to 2nd).

Coach is probably confused with sitches where pitcher throws elsewhere (somewhere other than the base) because fielder was not where he thought he'd be. In a recent college game there was a balk because F1 threw it to F3, who was charging on a bunt. He balked because he didn't throw it to a base - he threw it to F3, who was not near a base. (See Miami vs Texas thread). If he'd thrown it to 1st base anyway (yes... he'd be throwing the ball away, possibly), it would not have been a balk.

I actually witnessed a coach practicing this once. He'd occasionally have F3 either breaking away from the bag to play his position, or breaking home for a bunt. F1 didn't know when this was going to happen. He was teaching him that if F3 was not on the bag to throw it right at 1st base, but softly, so it would roll toward the bag, and F3 could get to the ball in time. Pretty ingenious, actually.

[aevans410]

That was my point to the coach, I told him that occupied bases meant occupied by the offense, and the fielders position didn't matter.

He was probably trying to work me for a free base, but I didn't bite.

[andrewm]

I've often wondered this myself. Does the distance from the runner to the closest base determine occupancy? Or, is it the last base legally occupied?

For example, runner breaks from first to second:

1. Pitcher throws to second (without stepping off) with runner less than half way there - balk?
2. Pitcher throws to first (without stepping off) with runner more than half way to second - balk?

[mcrowder]

HTBT, but neither is a balk.

A base that was occupied at TOP is always legit to throw to. You are also allowed to throw to a base where a play can be made.

Now ... 2 STEPS off 1st, and a throw to 2nd? Balk - no play was being made. There's no line in the sand for the runner to cross for you to say "Balk or no balk". It's your judgement - is a play being made?