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Had a coach ask me this before a game a two weeks ago, he stated that this had happened to his team at a tournament the week before. I wasn't sure of the answer, still not 100% now.
1 out, R1 and R3, RHP. Batters up, R1 takes a big lead. Pitcher is throwing from the stretch, comes set, and then is told R1 is going to second.(I'm guessing SS or FB hollered he's going? not sure)He turns his head, and fakes a throw to second, doesn't release the ball, doesn't move his feet, or his front arm, just extends his right arm straight back. Kinda like you would backhand it to someone. R1 hits the brakes, returns to first. Coach wanted it to be a balk, ump said it was not, he was throwing to pick off the runner. But the guy never actually threw the ball. The coaches questions to me: 1. Was it a balk? 2. Can a pitcher throw to an unoccupied base? Based off what he told me, and I tried to get all the info. to get it straight, I'd say it was a balk. Realy odd situation though, one to think about. |
Was it a balk?: Absolutely. F1 must step toward a base to throw OR fake to that base. If his feet didn't move, he didn't step.
Can F1 throw to an unoccupied base?: Absolutely, if it is for the purpose of making a play on a runner. |
cb nailed it.
Balk, since when you feint/throw to a base, you must also step. |
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And then as stated, the attempt must be legitimate. Your umpire must have been asleep on that play, and therefore, they will probably try it again soon. Thanks David |
Well,
Actually, as soon as the hands are separated, and the front foot does not move, it is a balk for failing to deliver the pitch to the plate.
Making, IIITBTSB And David B we should explain that at the FED level ANY fake by the runner equals an attempt to advance but in OBR there must be steps towards the base involved. They make even the easy ones difficult sometimes. |
Re: Well,
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And good reminder IIITBTSB. It always makes an interesting discussion when I bring that up at a meeting etc., Thanks David |
could you define that lengthy acronym?
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Thanks to both Tee & DavidB for "the rest of the story" & the IIITBTSB reminder.:cool:
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As this sitch has demonstrated, it is possible to balk to 2B. If a pitcher in the set position throws to second base without moving his feet, it's a balk.
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I guess maybe it is all in how you define balking "to second base".
With R2, the pitcher throws to second but steps toward third. Balk. Seems like that's a balk to second base. Unless maybe you say he balked to the base he stepped toward. Of course then you reverse it and you have a balk to second. Unless your argument is that the balk is for not stepping to the base your throwing to. I guess then you can't balk to any base. Or can you? :) |
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How about throwing to an unoccupied 2nd base???
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Gentlemen,
There is a difference between balking with a runner "on" second base and balking "to" second base.
DG, in your example the balk actually occurs because F1 did not complete the pitch. The balk occurs before the second half of the violation. Large, when F1 turns from the set position and throws to an unoccupied second base he has actually failed to complete the pitching motion. The balk is called for failing to finish the pitch to the plate not for throwing to the unoccupied base. Kalix is more closely attuned to the real issue. This is a definition issue more than a practical issue. I use the term to make fun of TWPs. [Edited by Tim C on Mar 28th, 2005 at 09:45 AM] |
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