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Old Mon Mar 05, 2001, 12:28pm
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Join Date: Aug 1999
Posts: 18,191
Quote:
Originally posted by Whowefoolin
Please, again, someone explain why a pitcher can't balk to second?

I had a game yesterday where the pitcher wheeled around and threw to F4 who was off the base. The BU called balk. Explanation was that F4 needs to be atleast breaking towards the base.

I remembered the debates about balking towards second, but could not think of them at the time. Even if I would have known, I probably wouldn't have shown up my partner. No one put up a fuss about it. They all bought it. However, I am interested to know why we can't balk to second.

I mentioned it to the BU after the game (about not balking second). He said it was bulls**t. That I should read the rule book, and stop reading these boards. I do read the rule book, however, found that nowhere does it say that (with the exception of first).

Thanx

Max
Without getting into the whole "IIITBTSB" word-smithing, the play you described was not a balk. See, the pitcher could have just feinted, and not thrown the ball. So, why would throwing the ball be a balk?

Tell your partner to read NAPBL 6.4(l)
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