Request some opinions and/or rulings. Recently calling High School scrimmage, getting ready for the season. Situation is no runners, 3-1 count to batter, pitch in dirt bounces off catchers shin gear/guard and rolls a few feet up first base line. Batter-runner starts toward first and a couple steps out of the box reaches down grabs baseball and turns and hands ball to catcher before proceeding to first. After that half inning my partner ( I had plate) says That the batter-runner should have been out for touching a live ball/interferance.
Now admittedly when reading FED rulebook not everything is crystal clear but I did find the actual rule/definition for interference: the act by the team at bat that interferes with, obstructs, impedes, hinders or confuses any fielder attempting to make a play.
Now to borrow a term from the OBR book, the Batter Runner is not "In Jeopardy" as he has earned the right to advance to first without a play being made, due to receiving four balls.

I can't find a reference to a offensive team member touching a live ball just interference. Now I agree with my partner that in most situations a member of the offense touches ball I would have interference, balls dead and someone is out. But I just don't see this as meeting any of the definitions.

I just want to get it right so any help appreciatted.

Oh yeah, did I mention that that walk turned into the winning run in extra innings?

Thanks from San Diego
Butch

To interfere, there must be a (potential) play. There wsa no potential play here. I'd let it go.

Consider interference as not only being "with whom", but also "with what."

With what did the B/R interfere? What was the catcher going to do with the ball...throw it back to the pitcher?

No inteference. Your partner is trying waaaaaaaay too hard.

If the batter-runner walks to 1st base and turns past the bag or steps off in any way, is he eligible to be put out if he is tagged? It was my understanding ( in NFHS )that on a walk that is not intentional, this is a live ball and the runner is guaranteed to acquire 1st base without danger of being put out - but not past it. If so, there could be a potential play if the catcher elects to throw the ball to F3. Does this change the call by PU?

Just curious what call could or should be made.

Glad to hear anyones response but TimC.

Thanks.

Let's review the facts. The B/R, after ball four, with no runners on, picks up the ball and BEFORE he heads to first, he hands it to the catcher.

Now then, is there a concern that the catcher, who is now holding the ball, can't throw to first should the batter runner, who is on his way to first, decide to go, bluff to go or merely overrun the base. (Which, according to FED 8-2-6 is not his right on a base on balls)

You're drilling that nostril too far to find a booger.

Or, as Tee might have reminded us: There has to be interference to call interference.

[Edited by GarthB on Mar 6th, 2005 at 09:58 PM]

Why, did'ums he hurt your widdle feelings?

In FED a Batter-Runner could be put out if tagged off the base after a non-intentional walk. Ball is dead during intentional walk. This would be BU call, not PU.

GB,
Thanks, You are right.
The catcher would still have plenty of time to make that play. There would have to be no interference. It just seemed odd that an offensive player was handling the ball before the defensive player was and it was still a live ball.
Thanks for your insight.

Rich,

Nah.
I just don't want to waste my time reading his replies anymore.
I find others to be valuable and non-judgemental.

Keep posting for me.

Thanks

You're making a mistake. Tee has more experience than I will have in 20 more seasons. Sometimes it's better to read between the lines and take out the parts that will help you than it is to ignore someone.

Butch,

The proper ruling in this play is, your partner should be shot.

Well, I think I shall not shoot my partner, he has a lot more time in the trench then I have and has helped me in many ways. Thanks for all the toughts on the subject. I still continue to stand by my "no call". Catcher could have gunned him down if he went past first so no interference as I see it. Can only call what I see afterall.

Butch

I would not keep the ball live. Once the BR picked up the ball intentionally, I have a dead ball. I forget the rule reference, but I believe somewhere near the rules regarding balls that get lost in an offensive jersey, you'll find enough reasons to call this ball dead the instant the offense controls it.

He's not out on interference, for all the reasons stated above. But the ball is no longer live (so no further play at 1B or anywhere else - nothing to interfere with).

I don't know that this is such a great idea.

Admittedly, if you want to, you can call Time for just about any reason: to clean your glasses, etc. But if you are looking in the Rule Book for a "reason", you are likely to find that most of the reasons have consequenses attached to them: penalties or awards.

If you holler out TIME as soon as BR picks up that ball, you are gonna have a hard time selling the "it's nuttin'" call to the defensive coach. If it's not interference, why'd ya' kill the ball?

On a practical level, if it's not interference [and I agree, it's not], and if there is no chance that the act will have any advantage/disadvantage results: what's the case for killing the ball? What do you gain by doing it?

It's a fairly benign bit of nonsense, but to me it looks like drifting into OOO booger-drilling territory, which I don't think is what you intend.

Why kill the ball? There are no runners on and the batter just walked. Leave the ball live because nothing can happen. Now if the BR decides to do the LL play and head to 2nd, guess what? He gets an assist on his own put out!

Obviously, if there were runners on and the BR picked up the ball, that would be a good time to kill the ball.