Why is it foul?

[Carl Childress]

I'm finishing up the 2005 BRD, and I have what is to me an interesting problem. Let me lay out the text, exactly as it will appear in the book:

FED: If two umpires give differing decisions on the same play, the umpires in “consultation” decide which call will stand. (4.5.1) (added) EXCEPT: If the decisions involves fair or foul, the foul decision stands.

added Play 255: 0 on base: B1 lifts a high fly ball just past first base. The first baseman tries for the ball but drops it. The plate umpire “signals fair,” but the base umpire “signals foul.” Ruling: “This would not be considered a double call. The foul ball call of the first base umpire would prevail and B1 would return to the plate.” (adapted from FED CB 5.1.1b)

added Note 500: This play and ruling are more complex that one would think. They first appeared last year, and the “enthralling” point was that a foul ball could no longer become fair. I simply didn’t dig deeply enough into the play. Anyway, that’s my story — and I’m stickin’ to it. Three points:

1. I have indicated in the text of the BRD that the foul call in the casebook play stands because a call of foul cannot be changed. But:

2. Black letter law (5-1-1h) says that regardless of whether the ball is fair or foul, the call of foul stands when the umpire “verbally announces” foul. In CB 5.1.1b, neither umpire “verbally” announced the call; each signaled his decision. Therefore:

3. Is it possible the foul “signal” prevails because the call belonged to the base umpire? The editor took pains to indicate the fly ball was touched beyond the first base bag. With nobody on, that call belongs to — the base umpire.

I have about a week to include any pertinent comments before the PDF goes to the printer. The publisher, Right Sports, plans to begin shipment around the middle of January. Umpires should have it well before the FED season begins.

[Edited by Carl Childress on Dec 24th, 2004 at 12:33 PM]