Arm movement required

[Bfair]

For what it is worth-----

Kyle McNeeley presented the rules changes---including those specific to pitching---to those present at the Texas State Meeting for high school baseball that was held 1/21/01.
Kyle was specifically asked if the pitcher must include "arm movement" in his feint to a base after he has legally committed himself there with a proper foot movement. The 3-1 play was specifically used as the example.

Kyle's response was a rather pure and simple, "NO" .

I add this to hopefully add some information to a previous thread which discussed this situation at length. It is my understanding Kyle McNeeley is associated with the Fed rules at the National level although I am uncertain if he is considered as an official interpreter of the Fed rules. Others who are more familiar with Kyle's credentials may wish to add information.

I do know for certain that for me he is the most authoritative Fed source to have stated his opinion on this situation, and that until I hear otherwise, I will continue to accept that interpretation (which is NO CHANGE from how I had interpreted it previously).

[Warren Willson]

Originally posted by Bfair
Kyle McNeeley presented the rules changes---including those specific to pitching---to those present at the Texas State Meeting for high school baseball that was held 1/21/01.
Kyle was specifically asked if the pitcher must include "arm movement" in his feint to a base after he has legally committed himself there with a proper foot movement. The 3-1 play was specifically used as the example.

Kyle's response was a rather pure and simple, "NO" .

So what?

Mr McNeeley has given you a perfectly reasonable, honest and accurate answer based on the wording of the rules. You would expect nothing less, would you?

OTOH, what Mr McNeeley has NOT given you is the practical answer based on the EFFECT of those rules, which was the subject of the earlier thread.

It is impossible, in a practical sense, to legally step toward the base, separate the hands as is also apparently required under the FED rules and NOT have at least some "arm movement" as a part of the feint to the base.

The point was that it may be LEGALLY allowable, but that legal scenario is PRACTICALLY impossible to achieve. If you wanted Mr McNeeley to give you the practical answer, you should have asked him for that, and thrown in the provision about separating the hands also being required.

Cheers

[Bfair]

Warren, I didn't think y'all had Fed rules down there. That's ok.

I don't know why, after properly stepping to a base as a start of a feint, the requirement of splitting the hands would be required. I would think if the step to the plate would be the initiation of a pitch, then the legal step to the base would be the initiation of a legal throw or feint. Both are committing the pitcher to the respective locations. In fact, to the best of my recollection, that specific question of whether the legal step alone would suffice was asked of Mr. McNeeley in the discussion, although I will admit I am not certain of that specific wording. The question was specifically posed to him such that it meant only legal movement of the feet without any arm movement including a fake throw.

Can you advise me why splitting of the hands would be required after a legal step to a base?

Would splitting of the hands be required under OBR and NCAA when, after stepping to 3rd legally, F1 were to then decide to turn and throw to 1st without splitting his hands. I believe OBR and NCAA do not require it. Is that correct? Or have I missed something regarding the hand requirements on a move to a base. (Certainly I understand any move from the rubber to 1st must be completed, but I am asking about the others). If hands must be split, please advise me where to find it.

I would think as long as the movements were separate and distinct movements it would be ok. I mean, as long as F1 didn't wheel on his non pivot foot after planting it in order to spin to first.

Please advise.