Ball lodged in glove: FED interpretation

[cbfoulds]

Originally posted by Dave Hensley
from page 67 and 68 of the October 2004 issue of Referee Magazine:

Play 13: With (a) no runners on, or (b) R1 on first, B1's line drive to the mound smacks into F1's glove, but the force of the hit rips the glove from f1's hand. The glove lands on the ground with the ball lodged in the webbing. F1 recovers the glove and prepares to throw the glove with the lodged ball to first base. Ruling 13: In (a) and (b), the ball is dead when the umpire sees the lodged ball. B1 is awarded first base. In (b), R1 is awarded two bases.

Can anyone explain why Referee believes the batter would only be awarded first base, and not second? As I understand it, the Stevens article clearly states the interpretation is to award two bases to the batter, as well as any runners.

I've seen the same ruling elsewhere, just can't recall where at the moment [I'm gonna look]. It doesn't seem logical, I agree; unless you are subtracting the base B1 WOULDN"T have had if the glove wasn't "ripped from F1's hand" from the award?