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Tue Aug 03, 2004, 10:55pm
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This just happened in the Giants/Reds game (top 7th, no out). R1, bouding grounder hit right at F3. F3 goes to field it and R1 who had started to run to second turned around and went back toward first, stopping directly in front of F3. Ball got past F3, R1 to second and BR to first, play scored E-3.
Anyone else see this play, and shouldn't that be called interference? 
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Wed Aug 04, 2004, 01:47am
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I would have to see the play actually.
If they can call out Posada after the ball hit him, behind F3 while still in the cutout area of 1B, by ruling that 2b could have gotten to the ball still, then it sounds to me like they could have had interference here.
__________________
Jim Need an out, get an out. Need a run, balk it in.
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Wed Aug 04, 2004, 08:27am
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Wellll,
Because at the MLB level it is not interference.
Don't confuse professional baseball and games you work between the local A & P and Sid's Texaco. In MLB the ball would have to hit the runner . . . this play is just accepted "gamesmanship" as practice at the professional level. Tee
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