A fellow ump made this call and asked me for my opinion: R1, R2, less than 2 outs. R2 advances to third on a fly out. The pitcher then toes the rubber, steps off and throws to second to appeal that R2 left before the catch. The ump called a balk rationalizing that the pitcher was throwing to an unoccupied base. He defended his call by saying that the pitcher nor anyone else on the defense indicated their intentions until after he called the balk. Intuitively I don't think the ump was right. I could have sworn there was some language in OBR about the defense's actions being "unmistakeable" as to their intentions, but I can't find it right now.

Paul

Let's see...
Pitcher has posession of the ball and engages the rubber.
Pitcher legally disengages the rubber and tosses ball to 2nd for an appeal.
When diengaged from the rubber, pitcher is a fielder.
Only pitchers can balk.
No balk. Live ball.

See the last comment to 7.10

Not a balk if he legally disengaged. I have never seen an appeal that I was not expecting, either because I saw the runner miss the base, or because the coaches or other players were calling it. If he steps off legally what is the rational for calling a balk, regardless of whether the intention was clear?

Because he threw to an unoccupied base.

If he steps off the rubber legally he can only be accused of delaying the game.

But he wasn't a "pitcher, while touching his plate" as required by 8.05(d)

And regardless, even if he was touching the plate, it was for the specific purpose of making an appeal, which is not a balk.

Maybe I should read threads from the beginning before I participate. :)

Is it relevant that the defense did not announce their intentions? My ump friend claimed the actions were not "unmistakable" to him. (I am not going to try and make excuses for him, I'm just asking for a face-value answer.)

Why in the world would they be throwing to second right after a tag play there <i>except</i> to appeal? Did he offer a theory on that?

Not relevant. Why else would the pitcher throw to second and the fielder step on the base? You don't have to "announce" an appeal. If there's a line drive to second and the ball is thrown to first to double up R1, do they "announce" that appeal?

--Rich

Careful there. This is not completely true:

Example: OBR 8.05 (g) (If there is a runner or runners on basem it is a balk when-)

The pitcher makes any motion naturally associated with his pitch while he is NOT touching the pitcher's plate.

AND

8.05 (i) The pitcher, without having the ball, stands on, OR ASTRIDE the pitcher's plate, or WHILE OFF THE PLATE, feints a pitch.

OK, OK.
Your example ahs him imitating a pitcher, which causes the balk.

I have never had an appeal play where I was not expecting it, either because I saw the runner miss the base or because I heard someone talking about making an appeal, such as coaches or other players hollering instructions. Often, the advice is wrong, but there is no mistake about what is going on. If I ever get surprised by the appeal, I will signal safe and be done with it (assuming it is my call to make).