OK, ya'll... F1 is a lefty, R1 on 3rd and R2 on 2nd. F1 starts his motion from 'set,' and then starts to step to 1st, after then realizing there is no runner on 1st. I believe this to be a balk ONLY because 1st is unoccuppied, right? It is not a balk because he feigned to 1st, correct? I was the BU, and my partner calls the Balk more loudly than I, and yells "he can't fake to 1st." So we continue on and after the half-inning, I ask him about it. I mean, he was "all good" because it WAS a balk; but I just wanted to discuss the difference between these two balks in this post.
I knew that lefties can step towards first and not throw just like a righty can to 3rd or 2nd. A lefty has the same restriction to 3rd as a righty does to 1st, right? (I mean assuming a runner is on 1st for a lefty and/or a runner is on 3rd for a righty.) They have to throw. Whatchya'll think?
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"Have you ever heard of the 5-pt play--a multiple foul on a 3-pt try that goes?" LoL
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Sat Jul 10, 2004, 04:59am
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