OK, ya'll... F1 is a lefty, R1 on 3rd and R2 on 2nd. F1 starts his motion from 'set,' and then starts to step to 1st, after then realizing there is no runner on 1st. I believe this to be a balk ONLY because 1st is unoccuppied, right? It is not a balk because he feigned to 1st, correct? I was the BU, and my partner calls the Balk more loudly than I, and yells "he can't fake to 1st." So we continue on and after the half-inning, I ask him about it. I mean, he was "all good" because it WAS a balk; but I just wanted to discuss the difference between these two balks in this post.

I knew that lefties can step towards first and not throw just like a righty can to 3rd or 2nd. A lefty has the same restriction to 3rd as a righty does to 1st, right? (I mean assuming a runner is on 1st for a lefty and/or a runner is on 3rd for a righty.) They have to throw. Whatchya'll think?

I think the rules do not change merely because the pitcher is facing another direction, and that "a feint to first without throwing" remains "a feint to first without throwing".
mick

That you can't fake to first. And that a lefty can fake the same places as a righty.

It's not what you don't know that gets you into trouble, it's what you know for certain that ain't so that gets you into trouble.

Mick thinks it, I knows it. Just as he said, "the rules do not change merely because the pitcher is facing another direction, and that "a feint to first without throwing" remains "a feint to first without throwing"."

Your partner was correct.

Can you guys imagine what a mess it would be if this guy was right, and MLB Lefties could fake to first without throwing? Igg...

thx..
 

Hey,

Ya'll...good! I stand corrected. Thankyou for your input.

peace..