Question

#1 (**permalink**) Sat Jun 26, 2004, 10:37pm

Runner on first. The batter hits the ball and it hits the runner from first going to second. Is that runner out and the 2nd baseman can make the play at first? Or is the runner out but the batter gets first automatically due to a dead ball? Or, am I wrong on every situation and theres a different ruling? Thanks for your help.

GarthB · #2 (**permalink**) Sat Jun 26, 2004, 11:05pm

[QUOTE]Originally posted by BBallinRick
Runner on first. The batter hits the ball and it hits the runner from first going to second. Is that runner out and the 2nd baseman can make the play at first? Or is the runner out but the batter gets first automatically due to a dead ball? Or, am I wrong on every situation and theres a different ruling? Thanks for your help. [/QUOTE

Assuming the batted ball hit the runner before passing an infielder: deadball, runner out, batter gets first. Oh, and the runners at second and third, if they exist, go back to second and third.

But a more important question, concerning your sign-in name, exactly who B Ballin Rick?