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Old Mon Jun 07, 2004, 09:18am
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Question

Ok, here goes another interference question.

9-10 USSSA league game, played under OBR. I'm a coach of the fielding team in question.

1 out, runner on second. Batter hits a ground ball to F6. R2 advances towards 3B. F6 fields the grounder and as he is coming up to make the throw to 1B, R2 hits the left shoulder of F6 and spins him around. F6 completes the 360ยบ spin and makes the throw to 1B for the force out.

I argue interference on R2 - he should be out as well. I received various explanations from both umpires (high school kids) of why R2 is not out.

1. "R2 was running in the baseline and has the right to be there." Even I know that one is majorly wrong. F6 has a halo of protection around him to make the play. R2 must avoid him. Give me another one blue...

2. "Ummmm, well, your shortstop made the out at first anyway, so he obviously didn't get interfered with." Huh? So you're telling me that because my shortstop made a heck of a play he gets penalized? So, if he had not made the throw to 1B or launched the throw into the cheap seats, you would have called interference? "Yep." Good grief...


So tell me guys, am I wrong? To me, it's pretty clear by the shear definition of interference.

INTERFERENCE
(a) Offensive interference is an act by the team at bat which interferes with, obstructs, impedes, hinders or confuses any fielder attempting to make a play.

Spinning F6 around in a circle doesn't obstruct, impede, hinder, or confuse him? Surely one of those terms apply. Nowhere in the definition does it say to ignore the interference if the play is made anyway.

Please correct me if I'm wrong on this one, since I'd have ALOT of crow to eat!
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Old Mon Jun 07, 2004, 09:33am
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see this thread, started by me. I booted my call. Maybe this will help.

http://www.officialforum.com/thread/13971

What I learned - OBR 7.09, the runner is out and ball is dead.

I would call "that's interference, R2 is out" and BR out at 1st. End of inning.

My question - how can BR be out at 1st, if intereference is an immediate dead ball? If he's not out, what do you do with BR?

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Old Mon Jun 07, 2004, 10:42am
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Quote:
Originally posted by jumpmaster
see this thread, started by me. I booted my call. Maybe this will help.

http://www.officialforum.com/thread/13971

What I learned - OBR 7.09, the runner is out and ball is dead.

I would call "that's interference, R2 is out" and BR out at 1st. End of inning.

My question - how can BR be out at 1st, if intereference is an immediate dead ball? If he's not out, what do you do with BR?

BR isn't out at first on this play (only if the interference was "willfully and deliberately" designed to prevent a double play).

If BR isn't out, he can't return to bat, so he goes to first.

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Old Mon Jun 07, 2004, 11:22am
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You're going to catch he%% for this in a game, but the proper ruling (unless R2 did what he did intentionally) was R2 out, BR to first, EVEN THOUGH F6 had time to still make a play. KEY: The ball is immediately dead when the collision occurs. Nothing that happens after that is remotely relevant, even if men were on 1st and 2nd and defense turns a stunning double play. The rest of the play didn't even happen.
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